* To obtain a hardcopy of this question pool, either print the downloadable 
PDF file on this web page or print this page, or send a business sized SASE to 
the ARRL/VEC, 225 Main St, Newington CT 06111. Request the "2004 General Class 
Question Pool". For $1.50 the ARRL VEC will supply a hardcopy of this pool 
without receiving an SASE. 
* The questions contained within this pool must be used in all General class 
examinations beginning July 1, 2004, and is intended to be used up through 
June 30, 2008. 
* The correct answer position A,B,C,D appears in parenthesis following each 
question number [e.g., in G1A01 (C), position C contains the correct answer 
text]. 
Question Pool 
ELEMENT 3 - GENERAL CLASS 
as released by the Question Pool Committee of the 
National Conference of Volunteer Examiner Coordinators 
December 1, 2003 
SUBELEMENT G1 -- COMMISSION'S RULES [6 Exam Questions -- 6 Groups] 
G1A General control operator frequency privileges 
G1A01 (C) [97.301d] 
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class control operator in the 
160-meter band (ITU Region 2)? 
A. 1800 - 1900-kHz 
B. 1900 - 2000-kHz 
C. 1800 - 2000-kHz 
D. 1825 - 2000-kHz 
G1A02 (A) [97.301d] 
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class control operator in the 
75/80-meter band (ITU Region 2)? 
A. 3525 - 3750-kHz and 3850 - 4000-kHz 
B. 3525 - 3775-kHz and 3875 - 4000-kHz 
C. 3525 - 3750-kHz and 3875 - 4000-kHz 
D. 3525 - 3775-kHz and 3850 - 4000-kHz 
G1A03 (D) [97.301d] 
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class control operator in the 
40-meter band (ITU Region 2)? 
A. 7025 - 7175-kHz and 7200 - 7300-kHz 
B. 7025 - 7175-kHz and 7225 - 7300-kHz 
C. 7025 - 7150-kHz and 7200 - 7300-kHz 
D. 7025 - 7150-kHz and 7225 - 7300-kHz 
G1A04 (A) [97.301d] 
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class control operator in the 
30-meter band? 
A. 10100 - 10150-kHz 
B. 10100 - 10175-kHz 
C. 10125 - 10150-kHz 
D. 10125 - 10175-kHz 
G1A05 (B) [97.301d] 
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class control operator in the 
20-meter band? 
A. 14025 - 14100-kHz and 14175 - 14350-kHz 
B. 14025 - 14150-kHz and 14225 - 14350-kHz 
C. 14025 - 14125-kHz and 14200 - 14350-kHz 
D. 14025 - 14175-kHz and 14250 - 14350-kHz 
G1A06 (D) [97.301d] 
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class control operator in the 
15-meter band? 
A. 21025 - 21200-kHz and 21275 - 21450-kHz 
B. 21025 - 21150-kHz and 21300 - 21450-kHz 
C. 21025 - 21150-kHz and 21275 - 21450-kHz 
D. 21025 - 21200-kHz and 21300 - 21450-kHz 
G1A07 (B) [97.301d] 
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class control operator in the 
12-meter band? 
A. 24890 - 24975-kHz 
B. 24890 - 24990-kHz 
C. 24900 - 24990-kHz 
D. 24900 - 24975-kHz 
G1A08 (A) [97.301d] 
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class control operator in the 
10-meter band? 
A. 28000 - 29700-kHz 
B. 28025 - 29700-kHz 
C. 28100 - 29600-kHz 
D. 28125 - 29600-kHz 
G1A09 (D) [97.301d] 
What are the frequency privileges for a General Class control operator in the 
17-meter band? 
A. 18068 - 18300-kHz 
B. 18025 - 18200-kHz 
C. 18100 - 18200-kHz 
D. 18068 - 18168-kHz 
G1A10 (C) [97.305a] 
What are the frequency segments for General class licensees within the 75/80- 
meter band in ITU Region 2 for CW emissions? 
A. 3500 - 3750 kHz and 3800 - 4000 kHz 
B. 3700 - 3750 kHz and 3850 - 4000 kHz 
C. 3525 - 3750 kHz and 3850 - 4000 kHz 
D. 3525 - 4000 kHz 
G1A11 (C) [97.305c] 
What are the frequency segments within the 10-meter band for phone emissions? 
A. 28000 - 28300 kHz 
B. 29000 - 29700 kHz 
C. 28300 - 29700 kHz 
D. 28000 - 29000 kHz 
G1B Antenna structure limitations; good engineering and good amateur 
practice; beacon operation; restricted operation; retransmitting radio signals 
G1B01 (C) [97.15a] 
Provided it is not at or near a public-use airport, what is the maximum height 
above ground an antenna structure may rise without requiring its owner to 
notify the FAA and register with the FCC? 
A. 50 feet 
B. 100 feet 
C. 200 feet 
D. 300 feet 
G1B02 (B) [97.101a] 
If the FCC Rules DO NOT specifically cover a situation, how must you operate 
your amateur station? 
A. In accordance with standard licensee operator principles 
B. In accordance with good engineering and good amateur practice 
C. In accordance with station operating practices adopted by the VECs 
D. In accordance with procedures set forth by the International Amateur 
Radio Union 
G1B03 (B) [97.203g] 
Which of the following types of stations may transmit only one-way 
communications? 
A. Repeater station 
B. Beacon station 
C. HF station 
D. VHF station 
G1B04 (A) [97.113b] 
Which of the following does NOT need to be true when an amateur station is 
being used to gather news information for broadcast purposes? 
A. The information is more quickly transmitted by Amateur Radio 
B. The information must involve the immediate safety of life of individuals 
or the immediate protection of property 
C. The information must be directly related to the event 
D. The information cannot be transmitted by other means 
G1B05 (D) [97.113e] 
Under what limited circumstances may music be transmitted by an amateur 
station? 
A. When it produces no dissonances or spurious emissions 
B. When it is used to jam an illegal transmission 
C. When it is transmitted on frequencies above 1215 MHz 
D. When it is an incidental part of a space shuttle retransmission 
G1B06 (C) [97.113a4] 
When may an amateur station in two-way communication transmit a message in a 
secret code in order to obscure the meaning of the communication? 
A. When transmitting above 450 MHz 
B. During contests 
C. Never 
D. During a declared communications emergency 
G1B07 (B) [97.113a4] 
What are the restrictions on the use of abbreviations or procedural signals in 
the amateur service? 
A. Only "Q" codes are permitted 
B. They may be used if they do not obscure the meaning of a message 
C. They are not permitted because they obscure the meaning of a message to 
FCC monitoring stations 
D. Only "10-codes" are permitted 
G1B08 (D) [97.113a4, 97.113e] 
Which of the following amateur station transmissions is NOT prohibited by the 
FCC Rules? 
A. The playing of music 
B. The use of obscene or indecent words 
C. False or deceptive messages or signals 
D. Retransmission of space shuttle communications 
G1B09 (C) [97.113a4, 97.113e] 
What should you do to prevent your station from retransmitting music or signals from a non-amateur station? 
A. Turn up the volume of your transceiver 
B. Speak closer to the microphone to increase your signal strength 
C. Turn down the volume of background audio 
D. Adjust your transceiver noise blanker 
G1B10 (A) [97.203] 
Which of the following is NOT an FCC requirement regarding beacon stations? 
A. All transmissions must use audio frequency shift keying (AFSK) 
B. Only one signal per band is permitted from a given location 
C. The transmitter power of the beacon station must not exceed 100 watts 
D. The control operator of the beacon station must hold a Technician, 
Technician Plus, General, Advanced or Extra Class operator license 
G1C Transmitter power standards; certification of external RF- 
power-amplifiers; standards for certification of external RF-power amplifiers; 
HF data emission standards 
G1C01 (A) [97.313c1] 
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 3690 kHz? 
A. 200 watts PEP output 
B. 1000 watts PEP output 
C. 1500 watts PEP output 
D. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications, with 
a maximum of 2000 watts PEP output 
G1C02 (C) [97.313a,b] 
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 7080 kHz? 
A. 200 watts PEP output 
B. 1000 watts PEP output 
C. 1500 watts PEP output 
D. 2000 watts PEP output 
G1C03 (A) [97.313c1] 
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 10.140 
MHz? 
A. 200 watts PEP output 
B. 1000 watts PEP output 
C. 1500 watts PEP output 
D. 2000 watts PEP output 
G1C04 (B) [97.313c1] 
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 21.205 
MHz? 
A. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications, with 
a maximum of 200 watts PEP output 
B. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications, with 
a maximum of 1500 watts PEP output 
C. 1000 watts PEP output 
D. 2000 watts PEP output 
G1C05 (C) [97.313a,b] 
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 24.950 
MHz? 
A. 200 watts PEP output 
B. 1000 watts PEP output 
C. 1500 watts PEP output 
D. 2000 watts PEP output 
G1C06 (B) [97.313] 
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 7155 kHz? 
A. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications, with 
a maximum of 200 watts PEP output 
B. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications, with 
a maximum of 1500 watts PEP output 
C. 1000 watts PEP output 
D. 2000 watts PEP output 
G1C07 (A) [97.313] 
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 14.300 
MHz? 
A. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications, with 
a maximum of 1500 watts PEP output 
B. 200 watts PEP output 
C. 1000 watts PEP output 
D. 2000 watts PEP output 
G1C08 (C) [97.313] 
What is the maximum transmitting power a station with a General Class control 
operator may use on 28.400 MHz? 
A. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications, with 
a maximum of 200 watts PEP output 
B. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications, with 
a maximum of 1000 watts PEP output 
C. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications, with 
a maximum of 1500 watts PEP output 
D. 2000 watts PEP output 
G1C09 (C) [97.313] 
What is the maximum transmitting power a station with a General Class control 
operator may use on 28.150 MHz? 
A. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications, with 
a maximum of 200 watts PEP output 
B. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications, with 
a maximum of 1000 watts PEP output 
C. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications, with 
a maximum of 1500 watts PEP output 
D. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications, with 
a maximum of 2000 watts PEP output 
G1C10 (D) [97.313] 
What is the maximum transmitting power an amateur station may use on 1825 kHz? 
A. 200 watts PEP output 
B. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications, with 
a maximum of 1000 watts PEP output 
C. 2000 watts PEP output 
D. The minimum power necessary to carry out the desired communications, with 
a maximum of 1500 watts PEP output 
G1C11 (D) 
Which of the following is NOT a requirement when a station is transmitting on 
the 60-meter band? 
A. All transmissions may only use Upper Sideband (USB) 
B. The 3-dB bandwidth of a signal shall not exceed 2.8 kHz, when centered on 
any of the five FCC-authorized transmitting frequencies 
C. Transmissions shall not exceed an effective radiated power (ERP) of 50 W 
PEP 
D. Antenna height shall not exceed 50 feet above mean sea level (AMSL) 
G1D Examination element preparation; examination administration; temporary 
station identification 
G1D01 (B) [97.507a2] 
What examination elements may you prepare when you hold a General class 
operator license? 
A. None 
B. Elements 1 and 2 only 
C. Element 1 only 
D. Elements 1, 2 and 3 
G1D02 (C) [97.509b3i] 
What license examinations may you administer when you are an accredited VE 
holding a General Class operator license? 
A. None 
B. General only 
C. Technician and Morse code 
D. Technician, General and Amateur Extra 
G1D03 (A) [97.501e] 
What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a Technician 
Class operator license? 
A. Element 2 only 
B. Elements 1 and 2 
C. Elements 2 and 3 
D. Elements 1, 2 and 3 
G1D04 (B) [97.501d] 
What minimum examination elements must an applicant pass for a Technician 
Class operator license with Morse code credit to operate on the HF bands? 
A. Element 2 only 
B. Elements 1 and 2 
C. Elements 2 and 3 
D. Elements 1, 2 and 3 
G1D05 (A) [97.509a,b] 
What are the requirements for administering a Technician Class operator 
examination? 
A. Three VEC-accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present 
B. Two VEC-accredited General Class or higher VEs must be present 
C. Two General Class or higher VEs must be present, but only one need be VEC 
accredited 
D. Any two General Class or higher VEs must be present 
G1D06 (D) [97.509b3i] 
When may you participate as an administering VE for a Technician Class 
operator license examination? 
A. Once you have notified the FCC that you want to give an examination 
B. Once you have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination 
(CSCE) for General class 
C. Once you have prepared telegraphy and written examinations for the 
Technician license, or obtained them from a qualified supplier 
D. Once you have been granted your FCC General class or higher license and 
received your VEC accreditation 
G1D07 (B) [97.119f2] 
If you are a Technician Class operator with a CSCE for General Class operator 
privileges, how do you identify your station when transmitting on 14.035 MHz? 
A. You must give your call sign and the location of the VE examination where 
you obtained the CSCE 
B. You must give your call sign, followed by the slant mark "/", followed by 
the identifier "AG" 
C. You may not operate on 14.035 MHz until your new license arrives 
D. No special form of identification is needed G1D08 (C) [97.119f2] 
If you are a Technician Class operator with a CSCE for General Class operator 
privileges, how do you identify your station when transmitting phone emissions 
on 14.325 MHz? 
A. No special form of identification is needed 
B. You may not operate on 14.325 MHz until your new license arrives 
C. You must give your call sign, followed by any suitable word that denotes 
the slant mark and the identifier "AG" 
D. You must give your call sign and the location of the VE examination where 
you obtained the CSCE 
G1D09 (A) [97.119f2] 
If you are a Technician Class operator with a CSCE for General Class operator 
privileges, when must you add the special identifier "AG" after your call 
sign? 
A. Whenever you operate using your new frequency privileges 
B. Whenever you operate 
C. Whenever you operate using Technician frequency privileges 
D. A special identifier is not required as long as your General class 
license application has been filed with the FCC 
G1D10 (D) [97.119f2] 
If you are a Technician Class operator with a CSCE for General Class operator 
privileges, on which of the following band segments must you include the 
special identifier "AG" after your call sign? 
A. Whenever you operate from 18068 - 18168-kHz 
B. Whenever you operate from 14025 - 14150-kHz and 14225 - 14350-kHz 
C. Whenever you operate from 10100 - 10150-kHz 
D. All of these choices are correct 
G1D11 (D) [97.509b3i] 
When may you participate as a VE in administering a Morse code examination? 
A. Once you have notified the FCC that you want to give an examination 
B. Once you have a Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination 
(CSCE) for General class 
C. Once you have prepared telegraphy and written examinations for the 
Technician license, or obtained them from a qualified supplier 
D. Once you have been granted your FCC General Class or higher operator 
license and received your VEC accreditation 
G1D12 (C) [97.119f2] 
If you are a Technician licensee with Morse code credit and hold a CSCE for 
Element 3, what is one way you could identify your station when transmitting 
phone emissions on a General class amateur frequency? 
A. Give your call sign followed by the words "general class" 
B. No special identification is needed, since your license upgrade would 
already be shown in the FCC's database 
C. Give your call sign followed by the words "temporary AG" 
D. You must wait until your new license arrives by mail from the FCC before 
using general class frequencies 
G1E Local control; repeater and harmful interference definitions; third party 
communications 
G1E01 (B) [97.119e] 
As a General Class control operator at the station of a Technician Class 
operator, how must you identify the station while transmitting on 7250 kHz? 
A. With your call sign, followed by the word "controlling" and the 
Technician call sign 
B. With the Technician Class operator's station call sign, followed by the 
slant bar "/" (or any suitable word) and your own call sign 
C. With your call sign, followed by the slant bar "/" (or any suitable word) 
and the Technician call sign 
D. A Technician station should not be operated on 7250-kHz, even with a 
General control operator 
G1E02 (D) [97.205a] 
Under what circumstances may a 10-meter repeater retransmit the 2-meter signal 
from a station having a Technician Class control operator? 
A. Under no circumstances 
B. Only if the station on 10 meters is operating under a Special Temporary 
Authorization allowing such retransmission 
C. Only during an FCC-declared general state of communications emergency 
D. Only if the 10-meter control operator holds at least a General class 
license 
G1E03 (A) [97.3a37] 
What kind of amateur station simultaneously retransmits the signals of other 
stations on a different channel? 
A. Repeater station 
B. Space station 
C. Telecommand station 
D. Relay station 
G1E04 (B) [97.3a22] 
What name is given to a form of interference that seriously degrades, 
obstructs or repeatedly interrupts a radiocommunication service? 
A. Intentional interference 
B. Harmful interference 
C. Adjacent interference 
D. Disruptive interference 
G1E05 (C) [97.115, 97.117] 
What types of messages for a third party may be transmitted by an amateur 
station to a foreign country? 
A. Messages for which the amateur operator is paid 
B. Messages facilitating the business affairs of any party 
C. Messages of a technical nature or remarks of a personal character 
D. No messages may be transmitted to foreign countries for third parties 
G1E06 (A) [97.3a23] 
Should a repeater cause harmful interference to another repeater when a 
frequency coordinator has recommended the operation of one station only, who 
is responsible for resolving the interference? 
A. The licensee of the uncoordinated repeater 
B. Both repeater licensees 
C. The licensee of the recommended repeater 
D. The frequency coordinator 
G1E07 (C) [97.303] 
What does it mean where the FCC rules say that the amateur service is a 
secondary user and another service is a primary user? 
A. Nothing special; all users of the frequency band have equal rights to 
operate 
B. Amateur stations are only allowed to use the frequency band during 
emergencies 
C. Amateur stations are allowed to use the frequency band only if they do 
not cause harmful interference to primary users 
D. Amateur stations must increase transmitter power to overcome any 
interference caused by primary users 
G1E08 (D) [97.303] 
What action must you take while using the 30-meter band when a station 
assigned to the band's primary service causes interference? 
A. Notify the FCC's regional Engineer in Charge of the interference 
B. Increase your transmitter's power to overcome the interference 
C. Attempt to contact the station and request that it stop the interference 
D. Change frequencies; you may be causing harmful interference to the other 
station, in violation of FCC rules 
G1E09 (C) [97.119b2] 
While you are using a language other than English in making a contact, what 
language must you use when identifying your station? 
A. The language being used for the contact 
B. The language being used for the contact, provided the US has a thirdparty 
communications agreement with that country 
C. English 
D. Any language of a country that is a member of the International 
Telecommunication Union 
G1E10 (A) [97.303s] 
What protection from harmful interference caused by primary service users do 
amateur radio stations have while operating in the 60-meter band? 
A. None 
B. Stations in the mobile and fixed service must not interfere with amateur 
stations 
C. Stations in the mobile and fixed service must not interfere if an amateur 
station is already on the frequency 
D. Stations in the mobile and fixed service must not interfere with amateur 
stations if they are located in ITU Region 2 
G1E11 (A) [97.303s] 
What operating restrictions must amateur radio stations observe while 
operating in the 60-meter band? 
A. They must not cause harmful interference to stations operating in other 
radio services 
B. They must transmit no more than 30 minutes during each hour to minimize 
harmful interference 
C. They must use lower sideband, suppressed-carrier, only 
D. They must not exceed 2.0 kHz of bandwidth 
G1E12 (B) [97.109e] 
What must be done at an amateur radio station while it is transmitting third 
party messages? 
A. Keep a station log of when the message was handled 
B. Use local or remote station control 
C. Identify both stations that handle the message 
D. Use local, remote or automatic station control 
G1F Certification of external RF-power-amplifiers; standards for certification 
of external RF-power amplifiers; HF data emission standards 
G1F01 (D) [97.315a] 
External RF power amplifiers designed to operate below what frequency may 
require FCC certification? 
A. 28 MHz 
B. 35 MHz 
C. 50 MHz 
D. 144 MHz 
G1F02 (B) [97.315a] 
Without a grant of FCC certification, how many external RF amplifiers of a given 
design capable of operation below 144 MHz may you build or modify in one 
calendar year? 
A. None 
B. 1 
C. 5 
D. 10 
G1F03 (B) [97.317a3] 
Which of the following standards must be met where FCC certification of an 
external RF amplifier is required? 
A. The amplifier must not be able to amplify a 28-MHz signal to more than 
ten times the input power 
B. The amplifier must not be capable of reaching its designed output power 
when driven with less than 50 watts 
C. The amplifier must not be able to be operated for more than ten minutes 
without a time delay circuit 
D. The amplifier must not be able to be modified by an amateur operator 
G1F04 (D) [97.317b,c] 
Which of the following would NOT disqualify an external RF power amplifier 
from a FCC certification grant? 
A. The capability of being modified by the operator for use outside the 
amateur service bands 
B. The capability of achieving full output power when driven with less than 
50 watts 
C. The capability of achieving full output power on amateur service 
frequencies between 24 and 35 MHz 
D. The capability of being switched by the operator to all amateur service 
frequencies below 24 MHz 
G1F05 (D) [97.305c, 97.307f3] 
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY emissions transmitted on 
frequency bands below 10 meters? 
A. 56 kilobauds 
B. 19.6 kilobauds 
C. 1200 bauds 
D. 300 bauds 
G1F06 (C) [97.307f5] 
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for packet emission transmissions on 
the 2-meter band? 
A. 300 bauds 
B. 1200 bauds 
C. 19.6 kilobauds 
D. 56 kilobauds 
G1F07 (C) [97.307f4] 
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission 
transmissions on the 10-meter band? 
A. 56 kilobauds 
B. 19.6 kilobauds 
C. 1200 bauds 
D. 300 bauds 
G1F08 (B) [97.307f5] 
What is the maximum symbol rate permitted for RTTY or data emission 
transmissions on the 6- and 2-meter bands? 
A. 56 kilobauds 
B. 19.6 kilobauds 
C. 1200 bauds 
D. 300 bauds G1F09 (A) [97.307f5] 
What is the maximum authorized bandwidth for RTTY, data or multiplexed 
emissions using an unspecified digital code transmitted on the 6- and 2-meter 
bands? 
A. 20 kHz 
B. 50 kHz 
C. The total bandwidth shall not exceed that of a single-sideband phone 
emission 
D. The total bandwidth shall not exceed 10 times that of a CW emission 
G1F10 (A) [97.317b] 
What must an external RF amplifier exhibit in order to receive a FCC grant of 
certification? 
A. It must not be capable of operation on any frequency between 24 MHz and 
35 MHz 
B. Its wiring must be accessible to permit modification of the amplifier 
C. It must have an internal RF sensing switch to place the amplifier in the 
transmit mode 
D. Its manual must provide instructions for modification of the amplifier 
G1F11 (A) [97.317b1] 
What is the maximum power gain that a 10-meter RF amplifier can have to 
receive FCC certification? 
A. 6 dB 
B. 3 dB 
C. 4 dB 
D. 10 dB 
SUBELEMENT G2 -- OPERATING PROCEDURES [6 Exam Questions -- 6 Groups] 
G2A Phone operating procedures 
G2A01 (A) 
Which sideband is commonly used for 20-meter phone operation? 
A. Upper 
B. Lower 
C. Amplitude compandored 
D. Double 
G2A02 (B) 
Which sideband is commonly used on 3925-kHz for phone operation? 
A. Upper 
B. Lower 
C. Amplitude compandored 
D. Double 
G2A03 (B) 
Which sideband is commonly used for 40-meter phone operation? 
A. Upper 
B. Lower 
C. Amplitude compandored 
D. Double 
G2A04 (D) 
Which sideband is commonly used for 10-meter phone operation? 
A. Double 
B. Lower 
C. Amplitude compandored 
D. Upper 
G2A05 (A) 
Which sideband is commonly used for 15-Meter phone operation? 
A. Upper 
B. Lower 
C. Amplitude compandored 
D. Double 
G2A06 (C) 
Which sideband is commonly used for 17-Meter phone operation? 
A. Amplitude compandored 
B. Lower 
C. Upper 
D. Double 
G2A07 (C) 
Which of the following modes of voice communication is most commonly used on 
the High Frequency Amateur bands? 
A. Frequency modulation (FM) 
B. Amplitude modulation (AM) 
C. Single sideband (SSB) 
D. Phase modulation (PM) 
G2A08 (D) 
Why is the single sideband mode of voice transmission used more frequently 
than Amplitude Modulation (AM) on the HF amateur bands? 
A. Single sideband transmissions use less spectrum space 
B. Single sideband transmissions are more power efficient 
C. No carrier is transmitted with a single sideband transmission 
D. All of these choices are correct 
G2A09 (B) 
Which of the following statements is true of a lower sideband transmission? 
A. It is called lower sideband because the lower sideband is greatly 
attenuated 
B. It is called lower sideband because the lower sideband is the only 
sideband transmitted, since the upper sideband is suppressed 
C. The lower sideband is wider than the upper sideband 
D. The lower sideband is the only sideband that is authorized on the 160-, 
75- and 40-meter amateur bands 
G2A10 (A) 
Which of the following statements is true of an upper sideband transmission? 
A. Only the upper sideband is transmitted, since the lower sideband is 
suppressed 
B. The upper sideband is greatly attenuated as compared with the carrier 
C. The upper sideband is greatly attenuated as compared with the lower 
sideband 
D. Only the upper sideband may be used for phone transmissions on the 
amateur bands with frequencies above 14 MHz 
G2A11 (D) 
Why do most amateur stations use lower sideband on the 160-, 75- and 40-meter 
bands? 
A. The lower sideband is more efficient at these frequency bands 
B. The lower sideband is the only sideband legal on these frequency bands 
C. Because it is fully compatible with an AM detector 
D. Current amateur practice is to use lower sideband on these frequency 
bands 
G2B Operating courtesy 
G2B01 (C) 
If you are the net control station of a daily HF net, what should you do if 
the frequency on which you normally meet is in use just before the net begins? 
A. Reduce your output power and start the net as usual 
B. Increase your power output so that net participants will be able to hear 
you over the existing activity 
C. Conduct the net on a clear frequency 3 to 5-kHz away from the regular net 
frequency 
D. Cancel the net for that day 
G2B02 (A) 
If a net is about to begin on a frequency which you and another station are 
using, what should you do? 
A. As a courtesy to the net, move to a different frequency 
B. Increase your power output to ensure that all net participants can hear 
you 
C. Transmit as long as possible on the frequency so that no other stations 
may use it 
D. Turn off your radio 
G2B03 (C) 
If propagation changes during your contact and you notice increasing 
interference from other activity on the same frequency, what should you do? 
A. Tell the interfering stations to change frequency, since you were there 
first 
B. Report the interference to your local Amateur Auxiliary Coordinator 
C. Move your contact to another frequency 
D. Turn on your amplifier to overcome the interference 
G2B04 (B) 
When selecting a CW transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency separation 
from a contact in progress should you allow to minimize interference? 
A. 5 to 50 Hz 
B. 150 to 500 Hz 
C. 1 to 3 kHz 
D. 3 to 6 kHz 
G2B05 (B) 
When selecting a single-sideband phone transmitting frequency, what minimum 
frequency separation from a contact in progress should you allow (between 
suppressed carriers) to minimize interference? 
A. 150 to 500 Hz 
B. Approximately 3 kHz 
C. Approximately 6 kHz 
D. Approximately 10 kHz 
G2B06 (B) 
When selecting a RTTY transmitting frequency, what minimum frequency 
separation from a contact in progress should you allow (center to center) to 
minimize interference? 
A. 60 Hz 
B. 250 to 500 Hz 
C. Approximately 3 kHz 
D. Approximately 6 kHz 
G2B07 (A) 
What is a band plan? 
A. A voluntary guideline beyond the divisions established by the FCC for 
using different operating modes within an amateur band 
B. A guideline from the FCC for making amateur frequency band allocations 
C. A plan of operating schedules within an amateur band published by the FCC 
D. A plan devised by a club to best use a frequency band during a contest 
G2B08 (A) 
What is another name for a voluntary guideline that guides amateur activities 
and extends beyond the divisions established by the FCC for using different 
operating modes within an amateur band? 
A. A "Band Plan" 
B. A "Frequency and Solar Cycle Guide" 
C. The "Knowledgeable Operator's Guide" 
D. The "Frequency Use Guidebook" 
G2B09 (D) 
When choosing a frequency for Slow-Scan TV (SSTV) operation, what should you 
do to comply with good amateur practice? 
A. Review FCC Part 97 Rules regarding permitted frequencies and emissions 
B. Follow generally accepted gentlemen's agreement band plans 
C. Before transmitting, listen to the frequency to be used to avoid 
interfering with an ongoing communication 
D. All of these choices 
G2B10 (D) 
When choosing a frequency for radioteletype (RTTY) operation, what should you 
do to comply with good amateur practice? 
A. Review FCC Part 97 Rules regarding permitted frequencies and emissions 
B. Follow generally accepted gentlemen's agreement band plans 
C. Before transmitting, first listen to the frequency to be used to avoid 
interfering with an ongoing communication 
D. All of these choices 
G2B11 (D) 
When choosing a frequency for HF Packet operation, what should you do to 
comply with good amateur practice? 
A. Review FCC Part 97 Rules regarding permitted frequencies and emissions 
B. Follow generally accepted gentlemen's agreement band plans 
C. Before transmitting, first listen on the frequency to be used to avoid 
interfering with an ongoing communication 
D. All of these choices 
G2B12 (A) 
What is a considerate way to avoid harmful interference when using phone? 
A. Ask if the frequency is in use, and say your call sign 
B. Call MAYDAY to make sure that the frequency is clear 
C. Call CQ for two minutes and see if anyone responds 
D. Turn on your amplifier, then go ahead and transmit 
G2B13 (C) 
What is a considerate way to avoid harmful interference when using Morse code 
or CW? 
A. Send the letter "V" 12 times and then listen for a response 
B. Call CQ for two minutes and see if anyone responds 
C. Send "QRL? de" followed by your call sign and listen for a response 
D. Turn on your amplifier, then go ahead and transmit 
G2C Emergencies, including drills and emergency communications 
G2C01 (C) 
What means may an amateur station in distress use to attract attention, make 
known its condition and location, and obtain assistance? 
A. Only Morse code signals sent on internationally recognized emergency 
channels 
B. Any means of radiocommunication, but only on internationally recognized emergency channels 
C. Any means of radiocommunication 
D. Only those means of radiocommunication for which the station is licensed 
G2C02 (A) 
During a disaster in the US, when may an amateur station make transmissions 
necessary to meet essential communication needs and assist relief operations? 
A. When normal communication systems are overloaded, damaged or disrupted 
B. Only when the local RACES net is activated 
C. Never; only official emergency stations may transmit in a disaster 
D. When normal communication systems are working but are not convenient 
G2C03 (A) 
If a disaster disrupts normal communications in your area, what may the FCC 
do? 
A. Declare a temporary state of communication emergency 
B. Temporarily seize your equipment for use in disaster communications 
C. Order all stations across the country to stop transmitting at once 
D. Nothing until the President declares the area a disaster area 
G2C04 (D) 
If a disaster disrupts normal communications in an area what would the FCC 
include in any notice of a temporary state of communication emergency? 
A. Any additional test questions needed for the licensing of amateur 
emergency communications workers 
B. A list of organizations authorized to temporarily seize your equipment 
for disaster communications 
C. Any special conditions requiring the use of non-commercial power systems 
D. Any special conditions and special rules to be observed by stations 
during the emergency 
G2C05 (D) 
During an emergency, what power output limitations must be observed by a 
station in distress? 
A. 200 watts PEP 
B. 1500 watts PEP 
C. 1000 watts PEP during daylight hours, reduced to 200 watts PEP during the 
night 
D. There are no limitations during an emergency 
G2C06 (C) 
During a disaster in the US, what frequencies may be used to obtain 
assistance? 
A. Only frequencies in the 80-meter band 
B. Only frequencies in the 40-meter band 
C. Any frequency 
D. Any United Nations approved frequency 
G2C07 (B) 
If you are communicating with another amateur station and hear a station in 
distress break in, what is the first thing you should do? 
A. Continue your communication because you were on frequency first 
B. Acknowledge the station in distress and determine its location and what 
assistance may be needed 
C. Change to a different frequency so the station in distress may have a 
clear channel to call for assistance 
D. Immediately cease all transmissions because stations in distress have 
emergency rights to the frequency 
G2C08 (A) 
Why do stations in the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES) participate in training tests and drills? 
A. To provide orderly and efficient operations for the civil defense 
organization they serve in the event of an emergency 
B. To ensure that members attend monthly on-the-air meetings of the civil 
defense organization they serve 
C. To ensure that RACES members are able to conduct tests and drills 
D. To acquaint members of RACES with other members they may meet in an 
emergency 
G2C09 (C) 
When are you prohibited from helping a station in distress? 
A. When that station is not transmitting on amateur frequencies 
B. When the station in distress offers no call sign 
C. You are not ever prohibited from helping any station in distress 
D. When the station is not another amateur station 
G2C10 (B) 
When FCC declares a temporary state of communication emergency, what must you 
do? 
A. Stay off the air until 30 days after FCC lifts the emergency notice 
B. Abide by the limitations or conditions set forth in the FCC notice 
C. Only communicate with stations within 2 miles of your location 
D. Nothing; wait until the President declares a formal emergency before 
taking further action 
G2C11 (C) 
During a disaster in the US, which of the following emission modes must be 
used to obtain assistance? 
A. Only SSB 
B. Only SSB and CW 
C. Any mode 
D. Only CW 
G2C12 (B) 
What information should anyone who sends a distress transmission give to 
stations who answer? 
A. The ITU region and grid square locator of the emergency 
B. The location and nature of the distress 
C. The time that the emergency occurred and the names of the persons 
involved 
D. The agencies to notify and the name of the emergency coordinator 
G2C13 (A) 
What frequency should be used to send a distress call? 
A. Whatever frequency has the best chance of communicating the distress 
message 
B. 3873 kHz at night or 7285 kHz during the day 
C. Only frequencies that are within your operating privileges 
D. Only frequencies used by police, fire or emergency medical services 
G2D Amateur auxiliary to the FCC's Compliance and Information Bureau; antenna 
orientation to minimize interference; HF operations, including logging 
practices 
G2D01 (A) 
What is the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Compliance and Information Bureau? 
A. Amateur volunteers who are formally enlisted to monitor the airwaves for 
rules violations 
B. Amateur volunteers who conduct amateur licensing examinations 
C. Amateur volunteers who conduct frequency coordination for amateur VHF 
repeaters 
D. Amateur volunteers who use their station equipment to help civil defense 
organizations in times of emergency 
G2D02 (B) 
What are the objectives of the Amateur Auxiliary to the FCC's Compliance and 
Information Bureau? 
A. To conduct efficient and orderly amateur licensing examinations 
B. To encourage amateur self-regulation and compliance with the rules 
C. To coordinate repeaters for efficient and orderly spectrum usage 
D. To provide emergency and public safety communications 
G2D03 (B) 
Why are direction-finding "Fox Hunts" important to the Amateur Auxiliary? 
A. Fox Hunts compel amateurs to upgrade their licenses 
B. Fox Hunts provide an opportunity to practice direction-finding skills 
C. Someone always receives an FCC Notice of Apparent Liability (NAL) when a 
Fox Hunt is concluded 
D. Fox Hunts allow amateurs to work together with Environmental Protection 
Agencies 
G2D04 (B) 
What is an azimuthal projection map? 
A. A map projection centered on the North Pole 
B. A map projection centered on a particular location, used to determine the 
shortest path between points on the surface of the earth 
C. A map that shows the angle at which an amateur satellite crosses the 
equator 
D. A map that shows the number of degrees longitude that an amateur 
satellite appears to move westward at the equator with each orbit 
G2D05 (A) 
What is the most useful type of map to use when orienting a directional HF 
antenna toward a distant station? 
A. Azimuthal projection 
B. Mercator 
C. Polar projection 
D. Topographical 
G2D06 (C) 
A directional antenna pointed in the long-path direction to another station is 
generally oriented how many degrees from its short-path heading? 
A. 45 degrees 
B. 90 degrees 
C. 180 degrees 
D. 270 degrees 
G2D07 (B) [97.103b] 
If a visiting amateur transmits from your station on 14.325 MHz, which of 
these is NOT true? 
A. You must first give permission for the visiting amateur to use your 
station 
B. You must keep in your station log the call sign of the visiting amateur 
together with the time and date of transmissions 
C. The FCC may think that you were the station's control operator, unless 
your station records show otherwise 
D. You both are equally responsible for the proper operation of the station 
G2D08 (D) 
Why should I keep a log if the FCC doesn't require it? 
A. To help with your reply, if FCC requests information on who was control 
operator of your station for a given date and time 
B. Logs provide information (callsigns, dates & times of contacts) used for 
many operating contests and awards 
C. Logs are necessary to accurately verify contacts made weeks, months or 
years earlier, especially when completing QSL cards 
D. All of these choices 
G2D09 (D) 
What information is normally contained in a station log? 
A. Date and time of contact 
B. Band and/or frequency of the contact 
C. Call sign of station contacted and the RST signal report given 
D. All of these choices 
G2D10 (C) 
Which of the following is a good reason to keep a log of your station's 
activities? 
A. It is required by the FCC's rules 
B. It is a tradition from the earliest days of amateur radio 
C. It can aid you in resolving interference complaints 
D. It can be a source of great enjoyment when reviewed in later years 
G2D11 (C) 
Which HF antenna would best be used to focus your signal to minimize 
interference? 
A. A bidirectional antenna 
B. A horizontal antenna positioned broadside to the desired direction 
C. A unidirectional antenna 
D. An omnidirectional antenna at low power 
G2D12 (A) [97.303s] 
Which of the following is required by the FCC rules when operating in the 
60-meter band? 
A. If you are using other than a dipole antenna, you must keep a record of 
the gain of your antenna 
B. You must keep a record of the date, time, frequency, power level and 
stations worked 
C. No records are required 
D. You must keep a record of the manufacturer of your equipment and the 
antenna used 
G2E Third-party communications; ITU Regions; VOX operation 
G2E01 (C) [97.117] 
What type of messages may be transmitted to an amateur station in a foreign 
country? 
A. Messages of any type 
B. Messages that are not religious, political, or patriotic in nature 
C. Messages of a technical nature or personal remarks of relative 
unimportance 
D. Messages of any type, but only if the foreign country has a third-party 
communications agreement with the US 
G2E02 (B) 
Which of the following statements is true of VOX operation? 
A. The received signal is more natural sounding 
B. This mode allows "Hands Free' operation 
C. Frequency spectrum is conserved 
D. The duty cycle of the transmitter is reduced 
G2E03 (D) 
Which of the following user adjustable controls are usually associated with VOX circuitry? 
A. Anti-VOX 
B. VOX Delay 
C. VOX Sensitivity 
D. All of these choices are correct 
G2E04 (C) 
What is the purpose of the VOX sensitivity control? 
A. To set the timing of transmitter activation 
B. To set the audio frequency range at which the transmitter activates 
C. To set the audio level at which the transmitter activates 
D. None of these choices is correct 
G2E05 (B) 
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is the continental 
United States? 
A. Region 1 
B. Region 2 
C. Region 3 
D. Region 4 
G2E06 (A) 
In which International Telecommunication Union Region are Europe and Africa? 
A. Region 1 
B. Region 2 
C. Region 3 
D. Region 4 
G2E07 (C) 
In which International Telecommunication Union Region is Australia? 
A. Region 1 
B. Region 2 
C. Region 3 
D. Region 4 
G2E08 (C) 
Which of the following organizations is responsible for international 
regulation of the radio spectrum? 
A. The International Regulatory Commission 
B. The International Radio Union 
C. The International Telecommunications Union 
D. The International Frequency-Spectrum Commission 
G2E09 (D) 
What do the initials "ITU" stand for? 
A. Interstate Telecommunications Union 
B. International Telephony Union 
C. International Transmission Union 
D. International Telecommunications Union 
G2E10 (B) 
What is the circuit called that causes a transmitter to automatically transmit 
when an operator speaks into its microphone? 
A. VXO 
B. VOX 
C. VCO 
D. VFO 
G2E11 (A) 
What is the best reason to use a headset with an attached microphone and VOX 
control when using a mobile station? 
A. For safer, hands-free operation 
B. It allows you to make quicker transmissions 
C. To eliminate ambient noise from your transmissions 
D. To reduce outside distractions while operating 
G2E12 (A) 
What function does an anti-VOX circuit perform? 
A. It prevents received audio from keying the transmitter 
B. It prevents background noise from keying the transmitter 
C. It prevents unauthorized persons from keying the transmitter 
D. It prevents activation of the transmitter during CW operation 
G2E13 (A) 
Which of the following would indicate the completion of the transmitting of a 
formal message when using phone? 
A. The phrase, "End of message" 
B. The word "Break" 
C. The Q-signal "QSL?" 
D. The Q-signal "QRV" 
G2F CW operating procedures, including procedural signals, Q signals and 
common abbreviations; full break-in; RTTY operating procedures, including 
procedural signals and common abbreviations and operating procedures for other 
digital modes, such as HF packet, AMTOR, PacTOR, G-TOR, Clover and PSK31 
G2F01 (D) 
Which of the following describes full break-in telegraphy (QSK)? 
A. Breaking stations send the Morse code prosign BK 
B. Automatic keyers are used to send Morse code instead of hand keys 
C. An operator must activate a manual send/receive switch before and after 
every transmission 
D. Incoming signals are received between transmitted key pulses 
G2F02 (A) 
In what segment of the 80-meter band do most data transmissions take place? 
A. 3580 - 3620-kHz 
B. 3500 - 3525-kHz 
C. 3700 - 3750-kHz 
D. 3775 - 3825-kHz 
G2F03 (B) 
In what segment of the 20-meter band do most RTTY transmissions take place? 
A. 14.000 - 14.050 MHz 
B. 14.070 - 14.095 MHz 
C. 14.150 - 14.225 MHz 
D. 14.275 - 14.350 MHz 
G2F04 (D) 
Which of the following is NOT correct? 
A. ASCII is a 7-bit code, with start, stop and parity bits 
B. The benefit of using AMTOR is its error detection and correction 
properties 
C. Baudot is a 5-bit code, with additional start and stop bits 
D. The two major AMTOR operating modes are SELCAL and LISTEN 
G2F05 (B) 
What is the most common frequency shift for RTTY emissions in the amateur HF 
bands? 
A. 85 Hz 
B. 170 Hz 
C. 425 Hz 
D. 850 Hz 
G2F06 (A) 
Why are the string of letters R and Y (sent as "RYRYRYRY...") occasionally 
used at the beginning of RTTY or other data transmissions? 
A. This allows time to 'tune in' a station prior to the actual message being 
sent 
B. To keep these commonly-used keys functional 
C. These are the important mark and space keys 
D. To make sure the transmitter is functional before sending a message 
G2F07 (B) 
What does the abbreviation "RTTY" stand for? 
A. "Returning to you", meaning "your turn to transmit" 
B. Radioteletype 
C. A general call to all digital stations 
D. Morse code practice over the air 
G2F08 (C) 
What prosign is sent using CW to indicate the end of a formal message? 
A. SK - I acknowledge 
B. BK - break 
C. AR - end of transmission 
D. KN - called station only, go ahead 
G2F09 (D) 
What character sequence is sent using RTTY or other data modes to indicate the 
end of a formal message? 
A. CZCZ 
B. KKKK 
C. XXXXX 
D. NNNN 
G2F10 (A) 
How many data bits are sent in a single PSK31 character? 
A. The number varies 
B. 5 
C. 7 
D. 8 
G2F11 (C) 
What part of a data packet contains the routing and handling information? 
A. Directory 
B. Preamble 
C. Header 
D. Footer 
SUBELEMENT G3 -- RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups] 
G3A Ionospheric disturbances; sunspots and solar radiation 
G3A01 (A) 
What can be done at an amateur station to continue communications during a 
sudden ionospheric disturbance? 
A. Try a higher frequency 
B. Try the other sideband 
C. Try a different antenna polarization 
D. Try a different frequency shift 
G3A02 (B) 
What effect does a sudden ionospheric disturbance have on the day-time ionospheric propagation of HF radio waves? 
A. It disrupts higher-latitude paths more than lower-latitude paths 
B. It disrupts signals on lower frequencies more than those on higher 
frequencies 
C. It disrupts communications via satellite more than direct communications 
D. None, only areas on the night side of the earth are affected 
G3A03 (C) 
How long does it take the increased ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from solar 
flares to affect radio-wave propagation on the earth? 
A. The effect is almost instantaneous 
B. 1.5 minutes 
C. 8 minutes 
D. 20 to 40 hours 
G3A04 (B) 
What is solar flux? 
A. The density of the sun's magnetic field 
B. The radio energy emitted by the sun 
C. The number of sunspots on the side of the sun facing the earth 
D. A measure of the tilt of the earth's ionosphere on the side toward the 
sun 
G3A05 (D) 
What is the solar-flux index? 
A. A measure of solar activity that is taken annually 
B. A measure of solar activity that compares daily readings with results 
from the last six months 
C. Another name for the American sunspot number 
D. A measure of solar activity that is taken at a specific frequency 
G3A06 (D) 
What is a geomagnetic disturbance? 
A. A sudden drop in the solar-flux index 
B. A shifting of the earth's magnetic pole 
C. Ripples in the ionosphere 
D. A dramatic change in the earth's magnetic field over a short period of 
time 
G3A07 (A) 
At which latitudes are propagation paths more sensitive to geomagnetic 
disturbances? 
A. Those greater than 45 degrees latitude 
B. Those between 5 and 45 degrees latitude 
C. Those near the equator 
D. All paths are affected equally 
G3A08 (B) 
What can be the effect of a major geomagnetic storm on radio-wave propagation? 
A. Improved high-latitude HF propagation 
B. Degraded high-latitude HF propagation 
C. Improved ground-wave propagation 
D. Improved chances of UHF ducting 
G3A09 (C) 
When sunspot numbers are high, what is the effect on radio communications? 
A. High-frequency radio signals are absorbed 
B. Frequencies above 300 MHz become usable for long-distance communication 
C. Long-distance communication in the upper HF and lower VHF range is 
enhanced 
D. High-frequency radio signals become weak and distorted G3A10 (A) 
What is the sunspot number? 
A. A daily index of sunspot activity 
B. The number of sunspots observed during one solar rotation 
C. The number of sunspots observed during a sunspot cycle 
D. The number of sunspots observed averaged over a seven day period 
G3A11 (C) 
What is the sunspot cycle? 
A. The 9- to 11-year periods when sunspots move from the sun's pole to its 
equatorial region 
B. The 9- to 11-year periods when sunspots cause coronal holes to appear 
C. The approximately 11-year variation in the sunspot number 
D. The approximately 11-year periods when sunspots combine to form flares 
G3A12 (B) 
What is the K-index? 
A. A linear index of solar activity 
B. A measure of geomagnetic stability 
C. An index of solar flux measured at Boulder, Colorado 
D. A daily value measured on a scale from 0 to 400 to express the range of 
disturbance of the geomagnetic field 
G3A13 (C) 
What is the A-index? 
A. A monthly linear index of solar activity 
B. An weekly index of solar flux measured at Boulder, Colorado 
C. A daily value measured on a scale from 0 to 400 to express the range of 
disturbance of the geomagnetic field 
D. An index used by NOAA to correlate the visual color wavelengths seen with 
Aurora Borealis (Northern Lights) 
G3A14 (C) 
How does solar coronal hole activity affect radio communications? 
A. The activity emits charged particles that improve HF communications 
B. The activity emits charged particles that improve VHF/UHF ducting 
C. The activity emits charged particles that usually disrupt HF 
communications 
D. The activity emits charged particles, but they never reach Earth's 
magnetosphere 
G3A15 (D) 
How long does it take charged particles from coronal mass ejections (CMEs) to 
affect radio-wave propagation on the earth? 
A. Almost instantaneously 
B. About 5 minutes 
C. About 8 minutes 
D. 20 to 40 hours 
G3A16 (A) 
What might result during periods of high geomagnetic activity? 
A. A visible aurora 
B. Excellent high-frequency radio conditions 
C. Poor 6-meter conditions 
D. F-layer absorption 
G3B Maximum usable frequency; propagation "hops" 
G3B01 (B) 
If the maximum usable frequency (MUF) on the path from Minnesota to France is 
24 MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a successful contact? 
A. 10 meters 
B. 15 meters 
C. 20 meters 
D. 40 meters 
G3B02 (C) 
If the maximum usable frequency (MUF) on the path from Ohio to Germany is 17 
MHz, which band should offer the best chance for a successful contact? 
A. 80 meters 
B. 40 meters 
C. 20 meters 
D. 2 meters 
G3B03 (C) 
If the HF radio-wave propagation (skip) is generally good on the 24-MHz and 
28-MHz bands for several days, when might you expect a similar condition to 
occur? 
A. 7 days later 
B. 14 days later 
C. 28 days later 
D. 90 days later 
G3B04 (A) 
What is one way to determine if the maximum usable frequency (MUF) is high 
enough to support 28-MHz propagation between your station and western Europe? 
A. Listen for signals on a 10-meter beacon frequency 
B. Listen for signals on a 20-meter beacon frequency 
C. Listen for signals on a 39-meter broadcast frequency 
D. Listen for WWVH time signals on 20 MHz 
G3B05 (A) 
What usually happens to radio waves with frequencies below the maximum usable 
frequency (MUF) when they are sent into the ionosphere? 
A. They are bent back to the earth 
B. They pass through the ionosphere 
C. They are completely absorbed by the ionosphere 
D. They are bent and trapped in the ionosphere to circle the Earth 
G3B06 (C) 
Where would you tune to hear beacons that would help you determine propagation 
conditions on the 20-meter band? 
A. 28.2 MHz 
B. 21.1 MHz 
C. 14.1 MHz 
D. 18.1 MHz 
G3B07 (D) 
During periods of low solar activity, which frequencies are the least reliable 
for long-distance communication? 
A. Frequencies below 3.5 MHz 
B. Frequencies near 3.5 MHz 
C. Frequencies on or above 10 MHz 
D. Frequencies above 20 MHz 
G3B08 (D) 
At what point in the solar cycle does the 20-meter band usually support 
worldwide propagation during daylight hours? 
A. At the summer solstice 
B. Only at the maximum point of the solar cycle 
C. Only at the minimum point of the solar cycle 
D. At any point in the solar cycle 
G3B09 (C) 
What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally 
covered in one hop using the F2 region? 
A. 180 miles 
B. 1200 miles 
C. 2500 miles 
D. None; the F2 region does not support radio-wave propagation 
G3B10 (B) 
What is the maximum distance along the Earth's surface that is normally 
covered in one hop using the E region? 
A. 180 miles 
B. 1200 miles 
C. 2500 miles 
D. None of these choices is correct 
G3B11 (A) 
What happens to HF propagation when the lowest usable frequency (LUF) exceeds 
the maximum usable frequency (MUF)? 
A. No HF radio frequency will support communications along an ionospheric 
signal path 
B. The lowest usable frequency can never exceed the maximum usable frequency 
C. The ionospheric absorption of HF radio signals increases by 3 dB along 
every signal path 
D. All ionospheric propagation paths are still usable, but the 
signal-to-noise ratio decreases 
G3B12 (D) 
What factors affect the maximum usable frequency (MUF)? 
A. Path distance and locations 
B. Time of day and season 
C. Solar radiation and ionospheric disturbances 
D. All of these choices are correct 
G3B13 (D) 
How might a skywave signal sound if it arrives at your receiver by both short 
path and long path propagation? 
A. Periodic fading every 10 seconds 
B. Signal strength increased by 3 dB 
C. Signal strength decreased by 3 dB 
D. A well-defined echo can be heard 
G3B14 (A) 
A short distance hop on 10 meters might indicate what conditions on 6 meters? 
A. The MUF exceeds 50 MHz 
B. Absolutely no chance of a skywave 6-meter band opening 
C. 6-meter ground waves will diminish 
D. 10-meter propagation has no bearing on possible 6-meter propagation 
G3C Height of ionospheric regions; critical angle and frequency; HF scatter 
G3C01 (B) 
What is the average height of maximum ionization of the E region? 
A. 45 miles 
B. 70 miles 
C. 200 miles 
D. 1200 miles 
G3C02 (A) When can the F2 region be expected to reach its maximum height at your 
location? 
A. At noon during the summer 
B. At midnight during the summer 
C. At dusk in the spring and fall 
D. At noon during the winter 
G3C03 (C) 
Why is the F2 region mainly responsible for the longest-distance radio-wave 
propagation? 
A. Because it exists only at night 
B. Because it is the lowest ionospheric region 
C. Because it is the highest ionospheric region 
D. Because it does not absorb radio waves as much as other ionospheric 
regions 
G3C04 (D) 
What is the "critical angle" as used in radio-wave propagation? 
A. The lowest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the earth under 
specific ionospheric conditions 
B. The compass direction of a distant station 
C. The compass direction opposite that of a distant station 
D. The highest takeoff angle that will return a radio wave to the earth 
under specific ionospheric conditions 
G3C05 (C) 
What is the main reason the 160-, 80- and 40-meter amateur bands tend to be 
useful only for short-distance communications during daylight hours? 
A. Because of a lack of activity 
B. Because of auroral propagation 
C. Because of D-region absorption 
D. Because of magnetic flux 
G3C06 (B) 
What is a characteristic of HF scatter signals? 
A. High intelligibility 
B. A wavering sound 
C. Reversed modulation 
D. Reversed sidebands 
G3C07 (D) 
What makes HF scatter signals often sound distorted? 
A. Auroral activity and changes in the earth's magnetic field 
B. Propagation through ground waves that absorb much of the signal 
C. The state of the E-region at the point of refraction 
D. Energy scattered into the skip zone through several radio-wave paths 
G3C08 (A) 
Why are HF scatter signals usually weak? 
A. A part of the signal energy is propagated into the skip zone 
B. Auroral activity absorbs most of the signal energy 
C. Propagation through ground waves absorbs most of the signal energy 
D. The F region of the ionosphere absorbs most of the signal energy 
G3C09 (B) 
What type of radio-wave propagation allows a signal to be detected at a 
distance too far for ground-wave propagation but too near for normal sky-wave 
propagation? 
A. Ground wave 
B. Scatter 
C. Sporadic-E skip 
D. Short-path skip 
G3C10 (D) 
When does scatter propagation on the HF bands most often occur? 
A. When the sunspot cycle is at a minimum and D-region absorption is high 
B. At night 
C. When the F1 and F2 regions are combined 
D. When communicating on frequencies above the maximum usable frequency 
(MUF) 
G3C11 (A) 
Which is true about ionospheric absorption near the maximum usable frequency 
(MUF)? 
A. Absorption will be minimum 
B. Absorption is independent of frequency 
C. Absorption approaches maximum 
D. There is no correlation between MUF and absorption 
G3C12 (D) 
Daylight fading on the 40-meter band is associated most with which ionospheric 
layer? 
A. The F2 layer 
B. The F1 layer 
C. The E layer 
D. The D layer 
SUBELEMENT G4 -- AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups] 
G4A Two-tone test; electronic TR switch; amplifier neutralization 
G4A01 (C) 
What kind of input signal is used to test the amplitude linearity of a singlesideband 
phone transmitter while viewing the output on an oscilloscope? 
A. Normal speech 
B. An audio-frequency sine wave 
C. Two audio-frequency sine waves 
D. An audio-frequency square wave 
G4A02 (C) 
When testing the amplitude linearity of a single-sideband transmitter, what 
kind of audio tones are fed into the microphone input and on what kind of 
instrument is the transmitter output observed? 
A. Two harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is observed on 
an oscilloscope 
B. Two harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is observed on 
a distortion analyzer 
C. Two non-harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is observed 
on an oscilloscope 
D. Two non-harmonically related tones are fed in, and the output is observed 
on a distortion analyzer 
G4A03 (D) 
What audio frequencies are used in a two-tone test of the linearity of a 
single-sideband phone transmitter? 
A. 20 Hz and 20 kHz tones must be used 
B. 1200 Hz and 2400 Hz tones must be used 
C. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the transmitter 
audio passband, and must be harmonically related 
D. Any two audio tones may be used, but they must be within the transmitter 
audio passband, and should not be harmonically related 
G4A04 (A) 
At what point in an HF transceiver block diagram would an electronic TR switch 
normally appear? 
A. Between the transmitter and low-pass filter 
B. Between the low-pass filter and antenna 
C. At the antenna feed point 
D. At the power supply feed point 
G4A05 (C) 
Why is an electronic TR switch preferable to a mechanical one? 
A. It allows greater receiver sensitivity 
B. Its circuitry is simpler 
C. It has a higher operating speed 
D. It allows cleaner output signals 
G4A06 (A) 
As a power amplifier is tuned, what reading on its grid-current meter 
indicates the best neutralization? 
A. A minimum change in grid current as the output circuit is changed 
B. A maximum change in grid current as the output circuit is changed 
C. Minimum grid current 
D. Maximum grid current 
G4A07 (D) 
Why is neutralization necessary for some vacuum-tube amplifiers? 
A. To reduce the limits of loaded Q 
B. To reduce grid-to-cathode leakage 
C. To cancel AC hum from the filament transformer 
D. To cancel oscillation caused by the effects of interelectrode capacitance 
G4A08 (C) 
In a properly neutralized RF amplifier, what type of feedback is used? 
A. 5% 
B. 10% 
C. Negative 
D. Positive 
G4A09 (B) 
What does a neutralizing circuit do in an RF amplifier? 
A. It controls differential gain 
B. It cancels the effects of positive feedback 
C. It eliminates AC hum from the power supply 
D. It reduces incidental grid modulation 
G4A10 (B) 
What is the reason for neutralizing the final amplifier stage of a 
transmitter? 
A. To limit the modulation index 
B. To eliminate self oscillations 
C. To cut off the final amplifier during standby periods 
D. To keep the carrier on frequency 
G4A11 (A) 
What type of transmitter performance does a two-tone test analyze? 
A. Linearity 
B. Carrier and undesired sideband suppression 
C. Percentage of frequency modulation 
D. Percentage of carrier phase shift 
G4A12 (B) 
What type of signals are used to conduct a two-tone test? 
A. Two audio signals of the same frequency, but shifted 90-degrees and are 
within the transmitter's modulation bandpass 
B. Two non-harmonically related audio signals that are within the modulation 
bandpass of a transmitter 
C. Any two audio frequency signals as long as they are within the 
transmitter's modulation bandpass 
D. Two audio frequency range square wave signals of equal amplitude that are 
within the transmitter's modulation bandpass 
G4A13 (D) 
In what way is a diode like a switch? 
A. It permits current flow at bias voltages less than its zener voltage and 
blocks current at bias voltages greater than its zener voltage 
B. It permits current flow when reverse biased and blocks current when 
forward biased 
C. The voltage drop across it increases as forward bias increases and 
decreases as reverse bias decreases 
D. It permits current flow when forward biased and blocks current when 
reverse biased 
G4B Test equipment: oscilloscope; signal tracer; antenna noise bridge; 
monitoring oscilloscope; field-strength meters 
G4B01 (D) 
What item of test equipment contains horizontal- and vertical-channel 
amplifiers? 
A. An ohmmeter 
B. A signal generator 
C. An ammeter 
D. An oscilloscope 
G4B02 (D) 
What is a digital oscilloscope? 
A. An oscilloscope used only for signal tracing in digital circuits 
B. An oscilloscope used only for troubleshooting computers 
C. An oscilloscope used only for troubleshooting switching power supply 
circuits 
D. An oscilloscope designed around digital technology rather than analog 
technology 
G4B03 (D) 
How would a signal tracer normally be used? 
A. To identify the source of radio transmissions 
B. To make exact drawings of signal waveforms 
C. To show standing wave patterns on open-wire feed-lines 
D. To identify an inoperative stage in a receiver 
G4B04 (C) 
How is a noise bridge normally used? 
A. It is connected at an antenna's feed point and reads the antenna's noise 
figure 
B. It is connected between a transmitter and an antenna and is tuned for 
minimum SWR 
C. It is connected between a receiver and an antenna of unknown impedance 
and is tuned for minimum noise 
D. It is connected between an antenna and ground and is tuned for minimum 
SWR 
G4B05 (A) 
What is the best instrument to use to check the signal quality of a CW or 
single-sideband phone transmitter? 
A. A monitoring oscilloscope 
B. A field-strength meter 
C. A sidetone monitor 
D. A signal tracer and an audio amplifier 
G4B06 (D) 
What signal source is connected to the vertical input of a monitoring 
oscilloscope when checking the quality of a transmitted signal? 
A. The IF output of a monitoring receiver 
B. The audio input of the transmitter 
C. The RF signals of a nearby receiving antenna 
D. The RF output of the transmitter 
G4B07 (C) 
What is the purpose of a field-strength meter? 
A. To determine the standing-wave ratio on a transmission line 
B. To check the output modulation of a transmitter 
C. To monitor relative RF output 
D. To increase average transmitter output 
G4B08 (A) 
What simple instrument may be used to monitor relative RF output during 
antenna and transmitter adjustments? 
A. A field-strength meter 
B. An antenna noise bridge 
C. A multimeter 
D. A metronome 
G4B09 (C) 
In order to raise the S-meter reading on a receiver from S8 to S9, how much 
must the power output of a transmitter be increased? 
A. Approximately 2 times 
B. Approximately 3 times 
C. Approximately 4 times 
D. Approximately 5 times 
G4B10 (B) 
What type of information does a field strength meter provide? 
A. The gain in dBi of an antenna 
B. The field pattern of an antenna 
C. The presence and amount of phase distortion of a transmitter 
D. The presence and amount of amplitude distortion of a transmitter 
G4B11 (A) 
For which of the following applications might you use a field strength meter? 
A. Close-in RDF work 
B. A modulation monitor for a frequency or phase modulation transmitter 
C. An overmodulation indicator for a SSB transmitter 
D. A keying indicator for a RTTY or packet transmitter 
G4B12 (B) 
What is one way a noise bridge might be used? 
A. Determining an antenna's gain in dBi 
B. Pre-tuning an antenna tuner 
C. Determining the directivity of an antenna 
D. Determining the line loss of the antenna system 
G4B13 (A) 
What information could a noise bridge directly provide about an unknown length 
and type of transmission line? 
A. Its characteristic impedance 
B. Its velocity factor 
C. Its loss in dB per 100-feet 
D. Its reflection coefficient 
G4B14 (B) 
How would you connect an oscilloscope to an AM or SSB transmitter to check 
transmitter modulation using double trapezoidal patterns? 
A. Couple the detected RF output signal to the vertical plates; set the 
internal sweep to twice the modulating frequency 
B. Couple the RF output signal to the vertical plates and external trigger; 
set the internal sweep to twice the modulating frequency 
C. Couple the RF output signal to the vertical plates; apply the unmodulated 
RF drive signal to the horizontal plates 
D. Couple the detected RF output signal to the vertical plates; apply a 
constant DC signal to the horizontal plates 
G4C Audio rectification in consumer electronics; RF ground 
G4C01 (B) 
What devices would you install in home-entertainment systems to reduce or 
eliminate audio-frequency interference? 
A. Bypass inductors 
B. Bypass capacitors 
C. Metal-oxide varistors 
D. Bypass resistors 
G4C02 (B) 
What should be done if a properly operating amateur station is the cause of 
interference to a nearby telephone? 
A. Make internal adjustments to the telephone equipment 
B. Install RFI filters at the affected telephone 
C. Stop transmitting whenever the telephone is in use 
D. Ground and shield the local telephone distribution amplifier 
G4C03 (C) 
What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio rectification of a 
nearby single-sideband phone transmission occurs? 
A. A steady hum whenever the transmitter's carrier is on the air 
B. On-and-off humming or clicking 
C. Distorted speech from the transmitter's signals 
D. Clearly audible speech from the transmitter's signals 
G4C04 (A) 
What sound is heard from a public-address system if audio rectification of a 
nearby CW transmission occurs? 
A. On-and-off humming or clicking 
B. Audible, possibly distorted speech 
C. Muffled, severely distorted speech 
D. A steady whistling 
G4C05 (D) 
If your third-floor amateur station has a ground wire running 33 feet down to 
a ground rod, why might you get an RF burn if you touch the front panel of 
your HF transceiver? 
A. Because the ground rod is not making good contact with moist earth 
B. Because the transceiver's heat-sensing circuit is not working to start 
the cooling fan 
C. Because of a bad antenna connection, allowing the RF energy to take an 
easier path out of the transceiver through you 
D. Because the ground wire is a resonant length on several HF bands and acts 
more like an antenna than an RF ground connection G4C06 (A) 
Which of the following is NOT an important reason to have a good station 
ground? 
A. To reduce the cost of operating a station 
B. To reduce electrical noise 
C. To reduce interference 
D. To reduce the possibility of electric shock 
G4C07 (A) 
What is one good way to avoid stray RF energy in your amateur station? 
A. Keep the station's ground wire as short as possible 
B. Use a beryllium ground wire for best conductivity 
C. Drive the ground rod at least 14 feet into the ground 
D. Make a couple of loops in the ground wire where it connects to your 
station 
G4C08 (B) 
Which of the following statements about station grounding is NOT true? 
A. Braid from RG-213 coaxial cable makes a good conductor to tie station 
equipment together into a station ground 
B. Only transceivers and power amplifiers need to be tied into a station 
ground 
C. According to the National Electrical Code, there should be only one 
grounding system in a building 
D. The minimum length for a good ground rod is 8 feet 
G4C09 (C) 
Which of the following statements about station grounding is true? 
A. The chassis of each piece of station equipment should be tied together 
with high-impedance conductors 
B. If the chassis of all station equipment is connected with a good 
conductor, there is no need to tie them to an earth ground 
C. RF hot spots can occur in a station located above the ground floor if the 
equipment is grounded by a long ground wire 
D. A ground loop is an effective way to ground station equipment 
G4C10 (D) 
Which of the following is NOT covered in the National Electrical Code? 
A. Minimum conductor sizes for different lengths of amateur antennas 
B. The size and composition of grounding conductors 
C. Electrical safety inside the ham shack 
D. The RF exposure limits of the human body 
G4C11 (A) 
What can cause the unintended rectification of an RF signal? 
A. Induced currents in conductors that are in poor electrical contact 
B. Induced voltages in conductors that are in good electrical contact 
C. Capacitive coupling of the RF signal to ground 
D. Excessive standing wave ratio (SWR) of the transmission line system 
G4C12 (C) 
What is one cause of severe, broadband radio frequency noise at an amateur 
radio station? 
A. Not using a balun or line isolator to feed balanced antennas 
B. Lack of rectification of the transmitter's signal in power conductors 
C. An intermittent RF ground 
D. The use of horizontal, rather than vertical antennas 
G4C13 (D) 
How can a ground loop be avoided? 
A. Series connect ("daisy chain") all ground conductors 
B. Connect the AC neutral conductor to the ground wire 
C. Avoid using lockwashers and star washers in making ground connections 
D. Connect all ground conductors to a single point 
G4D Speech processors; PEP calculations; wire sizes and fuses 
G4D01 (D) 
What is the reason for using a properly adjusted speech processor with a 
single-sideband phone transmitter? 
A. It reduces average transmitter power requirements 
B. It reduces unwanted noise pickup from the microphone 
C. It improves voice-frequency fidelity 
D. It improves signal intelligibility at the receiver 
G4D02 (B) 
If a single-sideband phone transmitter is 100% modulated, what will a speech 
processor do to the transmitter's power? 
A. It will increase the output PEP 
B. It will add nothing to the output PEP 
C. It will decrease the peak power output 
D. It will decrease the average power output 
G4D03 (A) 
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 200 
volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor connected to the transmitter 
output? 
A. 100 watts 
B. 200 watts 
C. 400 watts 
D. 1000 watts 
G4D04 (B) 
What is the output PEP from a transmitter if an oscilloscope measures 500 
volts peak-to-peak across a 50-ohm resistor connected to the transmitter 
output? 
A. 500 watts 
B. 625 watts 
C. 1250 watts 
D. 2500 watts 
G4D05 (B) 
What is the output PEP of an unmodulated carrier transmitter if an averagereading 
wattmeter connected to the transmitter output indicates 1060 watts? 
A. 530 watts 
B. 1060 watts 
C. 1500 watts 
D. 2120 watts 
G4D06 (A) 
Which wires in a four-conductor line cord should be attached to fuses in a 
240-VAC primary (single phase) power supply? 
A. Only the "hot" (black and red) wires 
B. Only the "neutral" (white) wire 
C. Only the ground (bare) wire 
D. All wires 
G4D07 (D) 
What size wire is normally used on a 20-ampere, 120-VAC household appliance 
circuit? 
A. AWG number 20 
B. AWG number 16 
C. AWG number 14 
D. AWG number 12 
G4D08 (D) 
What maximum size fuse or circuit breaker should be used in a household 
appliance circuit using AWG number 12 wiring? 
A. 100 amperes 
B. 60 amperes 
C. 30 amperes 
D. 20 amperes 
G4D09 (C) 
What operating benefit does properly adjusted speech clipping provide? 
A. It removes any distortion in the audio waveform 
B. Deep clipping restores the natural sound of the audio 
C. It prevents overdriving the transmitter's modulator stage 
D. It removes any AC hum and noise that might be in the audio 
G4D10 (C) 
What would be the voltage across a 50-ohm dummy load dissipating 1200 watts? 
A. 173 volts 
B. 245 volts 
C. 346 volts 
D. 692 volts 
G4E Common connectors used in amateur stations: types; when to use; fastening 
methods; precautions when using; HF mobile radio installations; emergency 
power systems; generators; battery storage devices and charging sources 
including solar; wind generation 
G4E01 (B) 
Which of the following connectors is NOT designed for RF transmission lines? 
A. PL-259 
B. DB-25 
C. Type N 
D. BNC 
G4E02 (D) 
When installing a power plug on a line cord, which of the following should you 
do? 
A. Twist the wire strands neatly and fasten them so they don't cause a short 
circuit 
B. Observe the correct wire color conventions for plug terminals 
C. Use proper grounding techniques 
D. All of these choices 
G4E03 (A) 
Which of the following power connections would be the best for a 100-watt HF 
mobile installation? 
A. A direct, fused connection to the battery using heavy gauge wire 
B. A connection to the fuse-protected accessory terminal strip or 
distribution panel 
C. A connection to the cigarette lighter 
D. A direct connection to the alternator or generator 
G4E04 (B) 
Why is it best NOT to draw the DC power for a 100-watt HF transceiver from an 
automobile's cigarette lighter socket? 
A. The socket is not wired with an RF-shielded power cable 
B. The socket's wiring may not be adequate for the current being drawn by the transceiver 
C. The DC polarity of the socket is reversed from the polarity of modern HF 
transceivers 
D. The power from the socket is never adequately filtered for HF transceiver 
operation 
G4E05 (C) 
Which of the following most limits the effectiveness of an HF mobile 
transceiver operating in the 75-meter band? 
A. The vehicle's electrical system wiring 
B. The wire gauge of the DC power line to the transceiver 
C. The HF mobile antenna system 
D. The rating of the vehicle's alternator or generator 
G4E06 (D) 
Which of the following is true of both a permanent or temporary emergency 
generator installation? 
A. The generator should be located in a well ventilated area 
B. The installation should be grounded 
C. Extra fuel supplies, especially gasoline, should not be stored in an 
inhabited area 
D. All of these choices 
G4E07 (C) 
Which of the following is true of a lead-acid storage battery as it is being 
charged? 
A. It tends to cool off 
B. It gives off explosive oxygen gas 
C. It gives off explosive hydrogen gas 
D. It takes in oxygen from the surrounding air 
G4E08 (A) 
What is the name of the process by which sunlight is directly changed into 
electricity? 
A. Photovoltaic conversion 
B. Photosensitive conduction 
C. Photosynthesis 
D. Photocoupling 
G4E09 (B) 
What is the approximate open-circuit voltage from a modern, well illuminated 
photovoltaic cell? 
A. 0.02 VDC 
B. 0.5 VDC 
C. 0.2 VDC 
D. 1.38 VDC 
G4E10 (A) 
What determines the proper size solar panel to use in a solar-powered batterycharging 
circuit? 
A. The panel's voltage rating and maximum output current 
B. The amount of voltage available per square inch of panel 
C. The panel's open-circuit current 
D. The panel's short-circuit voltage 
G4E11 (C) 
What is the biggest disadvantage to using wind power as the primary source of 
power for an emergency station? 
A. The conversion efficiency from mechanical energy to electrical energy is 
less that 2 percent 
B. The voltage and current ratings of such systems are not compatible with amateur equipment 
C. A large electrical storage system is needed to supply power when the wind 
is not blowing 
D. All of these choices are correct 
G4E12 (A) 
What type of coaxial connector would be a good choice to use for 10 GHz feedline 
connections? 
A. Type N 
B. Type BNC 
C. Type UHF 
D. Type F 
G4E13 (A) 
Where should you avoid placing a gasoline-fueled generator to power your 
station? 
A. Inside a building or outside an open window 
B. Close to cold water pipes or other grounded metal objects 
C. Close to a driven ground 
D. Downwind from your station 
G4E14 (D) 
What safety precaution should you observe when using a gasoline-fueled 
generator to power your home station? 
A. Always ground the frame of the generator 
B. Use only generators that produce a clean sine wave output 
C. Make sure that the engine is well lubricated 
D. All of these choices are correct 
G4E15 (D) 
During a commercial power outage, why would it be unwise to back feed the 
output of a gasoline generator into your house wiring by connecting the 
generator through an AC wall outlet? 
A. It presents a hazard for electric company workers 
B. You may draw too much current, overloading your generator 
C. Power may be restored to your house, damaging your generator 
D. All of these choices are correct 
SUBELEMENT G5 -- ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [2 Exam Questions -- 2 Groups] 
G5A Impedance, including matching; resistance, including ohm; reactance; 
inductance; capacitance; and metric divisions of these values 
G5A01 (C) 
What is impedance? 
A. The electric charge stored by a capacitor 
B. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit containing only capacitance 
C. The opposition to the flow of AC in a circuit 
D. The force of repulsion between one electric field and another with the 
same charge 
G5A02 (B) 
What is reactance? 
A. Opposition to DC caused by resistors 
B. Opposition to AC caused by inductors and capacitors 
C. A property of ideal resistors in AC circuits 
D. A large spark produced at switch contacts when an inductor is deenergized 
G5A03 (D) 
In an inductor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC? 
A. Resistance 
B. Reluctance 
C. Admittance 
D. Reactance 
G5A04 (C) 
In a capacitor, what causes opposition to the flow of AC? 
A. Resistance 
B. Reluctance 
C. Reactance 
D. Admittance 
G5A05 (D) 
How does a coil react to AC? 
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases 
B. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases 
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases 
D. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases 
G5A06 (A) 
How does a capacitor react to AC? 
A. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases 
B. As the frequency of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases 
C. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance increases 
D. As the amplitude of the applied AC increases, the reactance decreases 
G5A07 (D) 
What happens when the impedance of an electrical load is equal to the internal 
impedance of the power source? 
A. The source delivers minimum power to the load 
B. The electrical load is shorted 
C. No current can flow through the circuit 
D. The source delivers maximum power to the load 
G5A08 (A) 
Why is impedance matching important? 
A. So the source can deliver maximum power to the load 
B. So the load will draw minimum power from the source 
C. To ensure that there is less resistance than reactance in the circuit 
D. To ensure that the resistance and reactance in the circuit are equal 
G5A09 (B) 
What unit is used to measure reactance? 
A. Mho 
B. Ohm 
C. Ampere 
D. Siemens 
G5A10 (B) 
What unit is used to measure impedance? 
A. Volt 
B. Ohm 
C. Ampere 
D. Watt 
G5A11 (A) 
Why should core saturation of a conventional impedance matching transformer be 
avoided? 
A. Harmonics and distortion could result from saturation 
B. Magnetic flux would increase with frequency 
C. RF susceptance would increase 
D. Temporary changes of the core permeability could result from saturation 
G5B Decibel; Ohm's Law; current and voltage dividers; electrical power 
calculations and series and parallel components; transformers (either voltage 
or impedance); sine wave root-mean-square (RMS) value 
G5B01 (B) 
A two-times increase in power results in a change of how many dB? 
A. 1 dB higher 
B. 3 dB higher 
C. 6 dB higher 
D. 12 dB higher 
G5B02 (B) 
In a parallel circuit with a voltage source and several branch resistors, how 
is the total current related to the current in the branch resistors? 
A. It equals the average of the branch current through each resistor 
B. It equals the sum of the branch current through each resistor 
C. It decreases as more parallel resistors are added to the circuit 
D. It is the sum of each resistor's voltage drop multiplied by the total 
number of resistors 
G5B03 (B) 
How many watts of electrical power are used if 400 VDC is supplied to an 800- 
ohm load? 
A. 0.5 watts 
B. 200 watts 
C. 400 watts 
D. 320,000 watts 
G5B04 (D) 
How many watts of electrical power are used by a 12-VDC light bulb that draws 
0.2 amperes? 
A. 60 watts 
B. 24 watts 
C. 6 watts 
D. 2.4 watts 
G5B05 (A) 
How many watts are being dissipated when 7.0 milliamperes flow through 1.25 
kilohms? 
A. Approximately 61 milliwatts 
B. Approximately 39 milliwatts 
C. Approximately 11 milliwatts 
D. Approximately 9 milliwatts 
G5B06 (C) 
What is the voltage across a 500-turn secondary winding in a transformer if 
the 2250-turn primary is connected to 120 VAC? 
A. 2370 volts 
B. 540 volts 
C. 26.7 volts 
D. 5.9 volts 
G5B07 (A) 
What is the turns ratio of a transformer to match an audio amplifier having a 
600-ohm output impedance to a speaker having a 4-ohm impedance? 
A. 12.2 to 1 
B. 24.4 to 1 
C. 150 to 1 
D. 300 to 1 G5B08 (B) 
A DC voltage equal to what value of an applied sine-wave AC voltage would 
produce the same amount of heat over time in a resistive element? 
A. The peak-to-peak value 
B. The RMS value 
C. The average value 
D. The peak value 
G5B09 (D) 
What is the peak-to-peak voltage of a sine wave that has an RMS voltage of 120 
volts? 
A. 84.8 volts 
B. 169.7 volts 
C. 204.8 volts 
D. 339.4 volts 
G5B10 (B) 
A sine wave of 17 volts peak is equivalent to how many volts RMS? 
A. 8.5 volts 
B. 12 volts 
C. 24 volts 
D. 34 volts 
G5B11 (A) 
What would be the RMS voltage if you combined two or more sine wave voltages? 
A. The square root of the average of the sum of the squares of each voltage 
waveform 
B. The sum of the RMS values for each voltage waveform 
C. The sum of the average values for each waveform 
D. The square of the sum of the average value for each waveform 
G5B12 (C) 
What causes a voltage to appear across the secondary winding of a transformer 
when a voltage source is connected across its primary winding? 
A. Capacitive coupling 
B. Displacement current coupling 
C. Mutual inductance 
D. Mutual capacitance 
G5B13 (A) 
What would be the capacitance and voltage rating of a series circuit 
consisting of two equal value capacitors with equal voltage ratings? 
A. Total capacitance would be half that of each capacitor and maximum 
voltage would be twice that of each capacitor 
B. Total capacitance would be half that of each capacitor and maximum 
voltage would be the same as each capacitor 
C. Total capacitance and maximum voltage would be the same as each capacitor 
D. Total capacitance and maximum voltage would be half that of each 
capacitor 
G5B14 (D) 
What percentage loss would result from a transmission line loss of 1 dB? 
A. 16.6% 
B. 12.5% 
C. 14.7% 
D. 20.6% 
G5B15 (C) 
If three equal resistors in parallel produce 50-ohms of resistance and the 
same resistors in series produce 450-ohms, what is the value of each resistor? 
A. 1500-ohms 
B. 90-ohms 
C. 150-ohms 
D. 175-ohms 
SUBELEMENT G6 -- CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [1 exam question -- 1 group] 
G6A Resistors; capacitors; inductors; rectifiers and transistors; etc. 
G6A01 (C) 
If a carbon resistor's temperature is increased, what will happen to the 
resistance? 
A. It will increase by 20% for every 10 degrees centigrade 
B. It will stay the same 
C. It will change depending on the resistor's temperature coefficient rating 
D. It will become time dependent 
G6A02 (D) 
What type of capacitor is often used in power-supply circuits to filter the 
rectified AC? 
A. Disc ceramic 
B. Vacuum variable 
C. Mica 
D. Electrolytic 
G6A03 (D) 
What function does a capacitor serve if it is used in a power-supply circuit 
to filter transient voltage spikes across the transformer's secondary winding? 
A. Clipper capacitor 
B. Trimmer capacitor 
C. Feedback capacitor 
D. Suppressor capacitor 
G6A04 (B) 
Where is the source of energy connected in a transformer? 
A. To the secondary winding 
B. To the primary winding 
C. To the core 
D. To the plates 
G6A05 (A) 
If no load is attached to the secondary winding of a transformer, what is 
current in the primary winding called? 
A. Magnetizing current 
B. Direct current 
C. Excitation current 
D. Stabilizing current 
G6A06 (C) 
What is the peak-inverse-voltage rating of a power-supply rectifier? 
A. The maximum transient voltage the rectifier will handle in the conducting 
direction 
B. 1.4 times the AC frequency 
C. The maximum voltage the rectifier will handle in the non-conducting 
direction 
D. 2.8 times the AC frequency 
G6A07 (A) 
What are the two major ratings that must not be exceeded for silicon-diode 
rectifiers used in power-supply circuits? 
A. Peak inverse voltage; average forward current 
B. Average power; average voltage 
C. Capacitive reactance; avalanche voltage 
D. Peak load impedance; peak voltage 
G6A08 (A) 
What is the output waveform of an unfiltered full-wave rectifier connected to 
a resistive load? 
A. A series of pulses at twice the frequency of the AC input 
B. A series of pulses at the same frequency as the AC input 
C. A sine wave at half the frequency of the AC input 
D. A steady DC voltage 
G6A09 (B) 
A half-wave rectifier conducts during how many degrees of each cycle? 
A. 90 degrees 
B. 180 degrees 
C. 270 degrees 
D. 360 degrees 
G6A10 (D) 
A full-wave rectifier conducts during how many degrees of each cycle? 
A. 90 degrees 
B. 180 degrees 
C. 270 degrees 
D. 360 degrees 
G6A11 (C) 
When two or more diodes are connected in parallel to increase the currenthandling 
capacity of a power supply, what is the purpose of the resistor 
connected in series with each diode? 
A. The resistors ensure the thermal stability of the power supply 
B. The resistors regulate the power supply output voltage 
C. The resistors ensure that one diode doesn't take most of the current 
D. The resistors act as swamping resistors in the circuit 
G6A12 (B) 
Why would it not be a good idea to use a wire-wound resistor in a resonant 
circuit? 
A. The resistor's tolerance value would not be adequate for such a circuit 
B. The resistor's inductance would detune the circuit 
C. The resistor would overheat 
D. The resistor's internal capacitance would detune the circuit 
G6A13 (D) 
What is an advantage of ferrite toroidal inductors? 
A. Large values of inductance may be obtained 
B. The inductor may be used in applications where core saturation is 
desirable 
C. Most of the magnetic field is contained in the core 
D. All of these choices are correct 
G6A14 (A) 
Where would be the stable operating points for a bipolar transistor that is 
used as a switch in a logic circuit? 
A. In its saturation and cut-off regions 
B. In its active region (between cut-off and saturation regions) 
C. Between its peak and valley current points 
D. Between its enhancement and deletion modes 
G6A15 (C) 
How should two solenoid inductors be placed so as to minimize their mutual inductance? 
A. In line with their winding axis 
B. With their winding axis parallel to each other 
C. At right angles to their winding axis 
D. Within the same shielded enclosure 
G6A16 (B) 
Why might it be important to minimize the mutual inductance between two 
inductors? 
A. To increase the energy transfer between both circuits 
B. To reduce or eliminate stray coupling between RF stages 
C. To reduce conducted emissions 
D. To increase the self-resonant frequency of both inductors 
SUBELEMENT G7 -- PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [1 exam question -- 1 group] 
G7A Power supplies and filters; single-sideband transmitters and receivers 
G7A01 (B) 
What safety feature does a power-supply bleeder resistor provide? 
A. It does not affect voltage regulation 
B. It discharges the filter capacitors 
C. It removes shock hazards from the induction coils 
D. It eliminates ground-loop current 
G7A02 (D) 
What components are used in a power-supply filter network? 
A. Diodes 
B. Transformers and transistors 
C. Quartz crystals 
D. Capacitors and inductors 
G7A03 (C) 
What should be the minimum peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier in a 
full-wave power supply? 
A. One-quarter the normal output voltage of the power supply 
B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply 
C. Double the normal peak output voltage of the power supply 
D. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply 
G7A04 (D) 
What should be the minimum peak-inverse-voltage rating of the rectifier in a 
half-wave power supply? 
A. One-quarter to one-half the normal peak output voltage of the power 
supply 
B. Half the normal output voltage of the power supply 
C. Equal to the normal output voltage of the power supply 
D. One to two times the normal peak output voltage of the power supply 
G7A05 (B) 
What should be the impedance of a low-pass filter as compared to the impedance 
of the transmission line into which it is inserted? 
A. Substantially higher 
B. About the same 
C. Substantially lower 
D. Twice the transmission line impedance 
G7A06 (B) 
In a typical single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit processes signals 
from the balanced modulator and sends signals to the mixer? 
A. Carrier oscillator 
B. Filter 
C. IF amplifier 
D. RF amplifier 
G7A07 (D) 
In a single-sideband phone transmitter, what circuit processes signals from 
the carrier oscillator and the speech amplifier and sends signals to the 
filter? 
A. Mixer 
B. Detector 
C. IF amplifier 
D. Balanced modulator 
G7A08 (C) 
In a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what circuit processes 
signals from the RF amplifier and the local oscillator and sends signals to 
the IF filter? 
A. Balanced modulator 
B. IF amplifier 
C. Mixer 
D. Detector 
G7A09 (D) 
In a single-sideband phone superheterodyne receiver, what circuit processes 
signals from the IF amplifier and the BFO and sends signals to the AF 
amplifier? 
A. RF oscillator 
B. IF filter 
C. Balanced modulator 
D. Detector 
G7A10 (A) 
What type of power supply circuit is often used to provide overvoltage 
protection at its output? 
A. Crowbar 
B. Circuit breaker 
C. Ferrite transformer 
D. Buck-out transistor 
G7A11 (A) 
What type of capacitors should be used to filter the rectified DC output of a 
switching power supply? 
A. Capacitors with low equivalent series resistance 
B. Ordinary, large value electrolytic capacitors 
C. NPO-type ceramic disc or silver mica capacitors 
D. Capacitors with high equivalent series inductance 
G7A12 (C) 
Which of the following is an advantage of a switched-mode power supply as 
compared to a linear power supply? 
A. Higher output voltages are possible with the switched-mode supply 
B. Fewer circuit components are required for the switched-mode supply 
C. The relatively high frequency power oscillator allows the use of small, 
lightweight and low-cost transformers in the switched-mode supply 
D. All of these choices are correct 
G7A13 (A) 
In a switched-mode power supply, what is the first step in converting the 120 
volt AC input voltage to a 12 volt DC output voltage? 
A. The 120 volt AC is first rectified and filtered 
B. The 120 volt AC is first converted to 12 volt AC with a transformer 
C. The 120 volt AC is switched off when the waveform exceeds 12 volts, and is 
switched on again when the waveform drops below 12 volts 
D. An AC clamp is used to limit the input signal to no more than 20 volts DC 
SUBELEMENT G8 -- SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [2 Exam Questions -- 2 Groups] 
G8A Signal information; AM; FM; single and double sideband and carrier; 
bandwidth; modulation envelope; deviation; overmodulation 
G8A01 (D) 
What type of modulation system changes the amplitude of an RF wave for the 
purpose of conveying information? 
A. Frequency modulation 
B. Phase modulation 
C. Amplitude-rectification modulation 
D. Amplitude modulation 
G8A02 (B) 
What type of modulation system changes the phase of an RF wave for the purpose 
of conveying information? 
A. Pulse modulation 
B. Phase modulation 
C. Phase-rectification modulation 
D. Amplitude modulation 
G8A03 (D) 
What type of modulation system changes the frequency of an RF wave for the 
purpose of conveying information? 
A. Phase-rectification modulation 
B. Frequency-rectification modulation 
C. Amplitude modulation 
D. Frequency modulation 
G8A04 (B) 
What emission is produced by a reactance modulator connected to an RF power 
amplifier? 
A. Multiplex modulation 
B. Phase modulation 
C. Amplitude modulation 
D. Pulse modulation 
G8A05 (D) 
In what emission type does the instantaneous amplitude (envelope) of the RF 
signal vary in accordance with the modulating audio? 
A. Frequency shift keying 
B. Pulse modulation 
C. Frequency modulation 
D. Amplitude modulation 
G8A06 (C) 
How much should the carrier be suppressed below peak output power in a 
properly designed single-sideband (SSB) transmitter? 
A. No more than 20 dB 
B. No more than 30 dB 
C. At least 40 dB 
D. At least 60 dB 
G8A07 (C) 
What is one advantage of carrier suppression in a double-sideband phone 
transmission? 
A. Only half the bandwidth is required for the same information content 
B. Greater modulation percentage is obtainable with lower distortion 
C. More power can be put into the sidebands 
D. Simpler equipment can be used to receive a double-sideband suppressedcarrier 
signal 
G8A08 (A) 
Which popular phone emission uses the narrowest frequency bandwidth? 
A. Single-sideband 
B. Double-sideband 
C. Phase-modulated 
D. Frequency-modulated 
G8A09 (D) 
What happens to the signal of an overmodulated single-sideband or doublesideband 
phone transmitter? 
A. It becomes louder with no other effects 
B. It occupies less bandwidth with poor high-frequency response 
C. It has higher fidelity and improved signal-to-noise ratio 
D. It becomes distorted and occupies more bandwidth 
G8A10 (B) 
How should the microphone gain control be adjusted on a single-sideband phone 
transmitter? 
A. For full deflection of the ALC meter on modulation peaks 
B. For slight movement of the ALC meter on modulation peaks 
C. For 100% frequency deviation on modulation peaks 
D. For a dip in plate current 
G8A11 (C) 
What is meant by flattopping in a single-sideband phone transmission? 
A. Signal distortion caused by insufficient collector current 
B. The transmitter's automatic level control is properly adjusted 
C. Signal distortion caused by excessive drive 
D. The transmitter's carrier is properly suppressed 
G8A12 (A) 
What happens to the RF carrier signal when a modulating audio signal is 
applied to an FM transmitter? 
A. The carrier frequency changes proportionally to the instantaneous 
amplitude of the modulating signal 
B. The carrier frequency changes proportionally to the amplitude and 
frequency of the modulating signal 
C. The carrier amplitude changes proportionally to the instantaneous 
frequency of the modulating signal 
D. The carrier phase changes proportionally to the instantaneous amplitude 
of the modulating signal 
G8A13 (A) 
What signal(s) would be found at the output of a properly adjusted balanced 
modulator? 
A. Both upper and lower sidebands 
B. Either upper or lower sideband, but not both 
C. Both upper and lower sidebands and the carrier 
D. The modulating signal and the unmodulated carrier 
G8B Frequency mixing; multiplication; bandwidths; HF data communications 
G8B01 (A) 
What receiver stage combines a 14.25-MHz input signal with a 13.795-MHz 
oscillator signal to produce a 455-kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal? 
A. Mixer 
B. BFO 
C. VFO 
D. Multiplier 
G8B02 (B) 
If a receiver mixes a 13.800-MHz VFO with a 14.255-MHz received signal to 
produce a 455-kHz intermediate frequency (IF) signal, what type of 
interference will a 13.345-MHz signal produce in the receiver? 
A. Local oscillator 
B. Image response 
C. Mixer interference 
D. Intermediate interference 
G8B03 (A) 
What stage in a transmitter would change a 5.3-MHz input signal to 14.3 MHz? 
A. A mixer 
B. A beat frequency oscillator 
C. A frequency multiplier 
D. A linear translator 
G8B04 (D) 
What is the name of the stage in a VHF FM transmitter that selects a harmonic 
of an HF signal to reach the desired operating frequency? 
A. Mixer 
B. Reactance modulator 
C. Preemphasis network 
D. Multiplier 
G8B05 (C) 
Why isn't frequency modulated (FM) phone used below 29.5 MHz? 
A. The transmitter efficiency for this mode is low 
B. Harmonics could not be attenuated to practical levels 
C. The bandwidth would exceed FCC limits 
D. The frequency stability would not be adequate 
G8B06 (D) 
What is the total bandwidth of an FM-phone transmission having a 5-kHz 
deviation and a 3-kHz modulating frequency? 
A. 3 kHz 
B. 5 kHz 
C. 8 kHz 
D. 16 kHz 
G8B07 (B) 
What is the frequency deviation for a 12.21-MHz reactance-modulated oscillator 
in a 5-kHz deviation, 146.52-MHz FM-phone transmitter? 
A. 41.67 Hz 
B. 416.7 Hz 
C. 5 kHz 
D. 12 kHz 
G8B08 (C) 
How is frequency shift related to keying speed in an FSK signal? 
A. The frequency shift in hertz must be at least four times the keying speed 
in WPM 
B. The frequency shift must not exceed 15 Hz per WPM of keying speed 
C. Greater keying speeds require greater frequency shifts 
D. Greater keying speeds require smaller frequency shifts 
G8B09 (B) 
What do RTTY, Morse code, PSK31 and packet communications have in common? 
A. They are multipath communications 
B. They are digital communications 
C. They are analog communications 
D. They are only for emergency communications 
G8B10 (B) 
When sending data modes, why is it important to know the duty cycle of the 
mode you are using? 
A. Your connectors, feed line or antenna may be rated for intermittent 
amateur service 
B. To prevent damage to your transmitter's final output stage due to its 
inability to dissipate excess heat 
C. To prevent blowing your power supply's fuse due to its inability to 
dissipate excess heat 
D. All of these choices are correct 
G8B11 (D) 
In what segment of the 20-meter band are most PSK31 operations found? 
A. At the bottom of the slow-scan TV segment, near 14.230 MHz 
B. At the top of the SSB phone segment, near 14.325 MHz 
C. In the middle of the CW segment, near 14.100 MHz 
D. Below the RTTY segment, near 14.070 MHz 
G8B12 (A) [97.303s] 
What is the maximum bandwidth permitted by FCC rules for amateur radio 
stations when operating on USB frequencies in the 60-meter band? 
A. 2.8 kHz 
B. 5.6 kHz 
C. +/-2.8 kHz 
D. 3 kHz 
G8B13 (A) 
What is another term for the mixing of two RF signals? 
A. Heterodyning 
B. Synthesizing 
C. Cancellation 
D. Multiplying 
SUBELEMENT G9 -- ANTENNAS AND FEED-LINES [4 Exam Questions -- 4 Groups] 
G9A Yagi antennas - physical dimensions; impedance matching; radiation 
patterns; directivity and major lobes 
G9A01 (A) 
When designing a Yagi antenna, how can the SWR bandwidth be increased? 
A. Use larger diameter elements 
B. Use closer element spacing 
C. Use traps on the elements 
D. Use tapered-diameter elements 
G9A02 (B) 
Approximately how long is the driven element of a Yagi antenna for 14.0 MHz? 
A. 17 feet 
B. 33 feet 
C. 35 feet 
D. 66 feet 
G9A03 (B) 
Approximately how long is the director element of a Yagi antenna for 21.1 MHz? 
A. 42 feet 
B. 21 feet 
C. 17 feet 
D. 10.5 feet 
G9A04 (C) 
Approximately how long is the reflector element of a Yagi antenna for 28.1 
MHz? 
A. 8.75 feet 
B. 16.6 feet 
C. 17.5 feet 
D. 35 feet 
G9A05 (B) 
Which statement about a three-element Yagi antenna is true? 
A. The reflector is normally the shortest parasitic element 
B. The director is normally the shortest parasitic element 
C. The driven element is the longest parasitic element 
D. Low feed-point impedance increases bandwidth 
G9A06 (A) 
What is one effect of increasing the boom length and adding directors to a 
Yagi antenna? 
A. Gain increases 
B. SWR increases 
C. Weight decreases 
D. Wind load decreases 
G9A07 (C) 
Why is a Yagi antenna often used for radio communications on the 20-meter 
band? 
A. It provides excellent omnidirectional coverage in the horizontal Plane 
B. It is smaller, less expensive and easier to erect than a dipole or 
vertical antenna 
C. It helps reduce interference from other stations off to the side or 
behind 
D. It provides the highest possible angle of radiation for the HF bands 
G9A08 (C) 
What does "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a Yagi antenna? 
A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors 
B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the 
reflectors and directors 
C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power 
radiated in exactly the opposite direction 
D. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power 
radiated 90 degrees away from that direction 
G9A09 (D) 
What is the "main lobe" of a Yagi antenna radiation pattern? 
A. The direction of least radiation from the antenna 
B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element 
C. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element 
D. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna 
G9A10 (A) 
What is a good way to get maximum performance from a Yagi antenna? 
A. Optimize the lengths and spacing of the elements 
B. Use RG-58 feed-line 
C. Use a reactance bridge to measure the antenna performance from each 
direction around the antenna 
D. Avoid using towers higher than 30 feet above the ground 
G9A11 (D) Which of the following is NOT a Yagi antenna design variable that should be 
considered to optimize the forward gain, front-to-rear ratio and SWR 
bandwidth? 
A. The physical length of the boom 
B. The number of elements on the boom 
C. The spacing of each element along the boom 
D. The polarization of the antenna elements 
G9B Loop antennas - physical dimensions; impedance matching; radiation 
patterns; directivity and major lobes 
G9B01 (B) 
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna driven element 
for 21.4 MHz? 
A. 1.17 feet 
B. 11.7 feet 
C. 47 feet 
D. 469 feet 
G9B02 (A) 
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna driven element 
for 14.3 MHz? 
A. 17.6 feet 
B. 23.4 feet 
C. 70.3 feet 
D. 175 feet 
G9B03 (B) 
Approximately how long is each side of a cubical-quad antenna reflector 
element for 29.6 MHz? 
A. 8.23 feet 
B. 8.7 feet 
C. 9.7 feet 
D. 34.8 feet 
G9B04 (B) 
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna driven 
element for 28.7 MHz? 
A. 8.75 feet 
B. 11.7 feet 
C. 23.4 feet 
D. 35 feet 
G9B05 (C) 
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna driven 
element for 24.9 MHz? 
A. 10.99 feet 
B. 12.95 feet 
C. 13.45 feet 
D. 40.36 feet 
G9B06 (C) 
Approximately how long is each leg of a symmetrical delta-loop antenna 
reflector element for 14.1 MHz? 
A. 18.26 feet 
B. 23.76 feet 
C. 24.35 feet 
D. 73.05 feet 
G9B07 (A) 
Which statement about quad antennas is true? 
A. They compare favorably with a three-element Yagi 
B. They perform poorly above HF 
C. They perform very well only at HF 
D. They are effective only when constructed using insulated wire 
G9B08 (D) 
Compared to a dipole antenna, what are the directional radiation 
characteristics of a cubical-quad antenna? 
A. The quad has more directivity in the horizontal plane but less 
directivity in the vertical plane 
B. The quad has less directivity in the horizontal plane but more 
directivity in the vertical plane 
C. The quad has less directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes 
D. The quad has more directivity in both horizontal and vertical planes 
G9B09 (D) 
Moving the feed point of a multielement quad antenna from a side parallel to 
the ground to a side perpendicular to the ground will have what effect? 
A. It will significantly increase the antenna feed-point impedance 
B. It will significantly decrease the antenna feed-point impedance 
C. It will change the antenna polarization from vertical to horizontal 
D. It will change the antenna polarization from horizontal to vertical 
G9B10 (D) 
What does the term "antenna front-to-back ratio" mean in reference to a 
cubical-quad antenna? 
A. The number of directors versus the number of reflectors 
B. The relative position of the driven element with respect to the 
reflectors and directors 
C. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power 
radiated 90 degrees away from that direction 
D. The power radiated in the major radiation lobe compared to the power 
radiated in exactly the opposite direction 
G9B11 (C) 
What is the "main lobe" of a cubical-quad antenna radiation pattern? 
A. The direction of least radiation from an antenna 
B. The point of maximum current in a radiating antenna element 
C. The direction of maximum radiated field strength from the antenna 
D. The maximum voltage standing wave point on a radiating element 
G9C Random wire antennas - physical dimensions; impedance matching; radiation 
patterns; directivity and major lobes; feed point impedance of 1/2-wavelength 
dipole and 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas 
G9C01 (A) 
What type of multiband transmitting antenna does NOT require a feed-line? 
A. An end-fed random-wire antenna 
B. A triband Yagi antenna 
C. A delta-loop antenna 
D. A Beverage antenna 
G9C02 (D) 
What is one advantage of using a random-wire antenna? 
A. It is more efficient than any other kind of antenna 
B. It will keep RF energy out of your station 
C. It doesn't need an impedance matching network 
D. It is a multiband antenna 
G9C03 (B) 
What is one disadvantage of a random-wire antenna? 
A. It must be longer than 1 wavelength 
B. You may experience RF feedback in your station 
C. It usually produces vertically polarized radiation 
D. You must use an inverted-T matching network for multiband operation 
G9C04 (D) 
What is an advantage of downward sloping radials on a ground-plane antenna? 
A. It lowers the radiation angle 
B. It brings the feed-point impedance closer to 300 ohms 
C. It increases the radiation angle 
D. It brings the feed-point impedance closer to 50 ohms 
G9C05 (B) 
What happens to the feed-point impedance of a ground-plane antenna when its 
radials are changed from horizontal to downward-sloping? 
A. It decreases 
B. It increases 
C. It stays the same 
D. It approaches zero 
G9C06 (A) 
What is the low-angle radiation pattern of an ideal half-wavelength dipole HF 
antenna installed a half-wavelength high, parallel to the earth? 
A. It is a figure-eight at right angles to the antenna 
B. It is a figure-eight off both ends of the antenna 
C. It is a circle (equal radiation in all directions) 
D. It is two smaller lobes on one side of the antenna, and one larger lobe 
on the other side 
G9C07 (C) 
How does antenna height affect the horizontal (azimuthal) radiation pattern of 
a horizontal dipole HF antenna? 
A. If the antenna is too high, the pattern becomes unpredictable 
B. Antenna height has no effect on the pattern 
C. If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength high, the azimuthal 
pattern is almost omnidirectional 
D. If the antenna is less than one-half wavelength high, radiation off the 
ends of the wire is eliminated 
G9C08 (D) 
If the horizontal radiation pattern of an antenna shows a major lobe at 0 
degrees and a minor lobe at 180 degrees, how would you describe the radiation 
pattern of this antenna? 
A. Most of the signal would be radiated towards 180 degrees and a smaller 
amount would be radiated towards 0 degrees 
B. Almost no signal would be radiated towards 0 degrees and a small amount 
would be radiated towards 180 degrees 
C. Almost all the signal would be radiated equally towards 0 degrees and 180 
degrees 
D. Most of the signal would be radiated towards 0 degrees and a smaller 
amount would be radiated towards 180 degrees 
G9C09 (D) 
If a slightly shorter parasitic element is placed 0.1 wavelength away and 
parallel to an HF dipole antenna mounted above ground, what effect will this 
have on the antenna's radiation pattern? 
A. The radiation pattern will not be affected 
B. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the two 
elements 
C. A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the ground 
D. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, toward the parasitic element 
G9C10 (B) 
If a slightly longer parasitic element is placed 0.1 wavelength away and 
parallel to an HF dipole antenna mounted above ground, what effect will this 
have on the antenna's radiation pattern? 
A. The radiation pattern will not be affected 
B. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, away from the 
parasitic element, toward the dipole 
C. A major lobe will develop in the vertical plane, away from the ground 
D. A major lobe will develop in the horizontal plane, parallel to the two 
elements 
G9C11 (C) 
Where should the radial wires of a ground-mounted vertical antenna system be 
placed? 
A. As high as possible above the ground 
B. Parallel to the antenna element 
C. On the surface or buried a few inches below the ground 
D. At the top of the antenna 
G9D Popular antenna feed-lines - characteristic impedance and impedance 
matching; SWR calculations 
G9D01 (A) 
Which of the following factors help determine the characteristic impedance of 
a parallel-conductor antenna feed-line? 
A. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the radius of the 
conductors 
B. The distance between the centers of the conductors and the length of the 
line 
C. The radius of the conductors and the frequency of the signal 
D. The frequency of the signal and the length of the line 
G9D02 (B) 
What is the typical characteristic impedance of coaxial cables used for 
antenna feed-lines at amateur stations? 
A. 25 and 30 ohms 
B. 50 and 75 ohms 
C. 80 and 100 ohms 
D. 500 and 750 ohms 
G9D03 (D) 
What is the characteristic impedance of flat-ribbon TV-type twin-lead? 
A. 50 ohms 
B. 75 ohms 
C. 100 ohms 
D. 300 ohms 
G9D04 (C) 
What is the typical cause of power being reflected back down an antenna feedline? 
A. Operating an antenna at its resonant frequency 
B. Using more transmitter power than the antenna can handle 
C. A difference between feed line impedance and antenna feed-point impedance 
D. Feeding the antenna with unbalanced feed-line 
G9D05 (D) 
What must be done to prevent standing waves of voltage and current on an 
antenna feed-line? 
A. The antenna feed point must be at DC ground potential 
B. The feed line must be cut to an odd number of electrical quarterwavelengths 
long 
C. The feed line must be cut to an even number of physical half wavelengths 
long 
D. The antenna feed-point impedance must be matched to the characteristic 
impedance of the feed-line 
G9D06 (C) 
Under what conditions would you use an inductively coupled matching network 
with a dipole antenna fed with parallel-conductor feed line? 
A. It would not normally be used with parallel-conductor feed lines 
B. It would be used to increase the SWR to an acceptable level 
C. It would be used to match the unbalanced transmitter output to the 
balanced parallel-conductor feed line 
D. It would be used at the antenna feed point to tune out the radiation 
resistance 
G9D07 (A) 
If a 160-meter signal and a 2-meter signal pass through the same coaxial 
cable, how will the attenuation of the two signals compare? 
A. It will be greater at 2 meters 
B. It will be less at 2 meters 
C. It will be the same at both frequencies 
D. It will depend on the emission type in use 
G9D08 (D) 
In what values are RF feed line losses usually expressed? 
A. Bels/1000 ft 
B. dB/1000 ft 
C. Bels/100 ft 
D. dB/100 ft 
G9D09 (A) 
What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line 
to a resonant antenna having a 200-ohm feed-point impedance? 
A. 4:1 
B. 1:4 
C. 2:1 
D. 1:2 
G9D10 (D) 
What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line 
to a resonant antenna having a 10-ohm feed-point impedance? 
A. 2:1 
B. 50:1 
C. 1:5 
D. 5:1 
G9D11 (B) 
What standing-wave-ratio will result from the connection of a 50-ohm feed line 
to a resonant antenna having a 50-ohm feed-point impedance? 
A. 2:1 
B. 1:1 
C. 50:50 
D. 0:0 
G9D12 (B) 
What physical aspects of an air-insulated parallel-conductor transmission line 
determine its characteristic impedance? 
A. The RF resistance of the conductors and the length of the conductors 
B. The diameter of the conductors and the distance between their centers 
C. The RF resistance of the conductors and the dielectric constant of the 
insulation 
D. The resistance of each wire to RF ground and the antenna's impedance 
G9D13 (A) 
What would be the SWR if you feed a vertical antenna that has a 25-ohm feedpoint 
impedance with 50-ohm coaxial cable? 
A. 2:1 
B. 2.5:1 
C. 1.25:1 
D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values 
G9D14 (C) 
What would be the SWR if you feed a folded dipole antenna that has a 300-ohm 
feed-point impedance with 50-ohm coaxial cable? 
A. 1.5:1 
B. 3:1 
C. 6:1 
D. You cannot determine SWR from impedance values 
SUBELEMENT G0 -- RF SAFETY [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups] 
G0A RF Safety Principles 
G0A01 (A) 
Depending on the wavelength of the signal, the energy density of the RF field, 
and other factors, in what way can RF energy affect body tissue? 
A. It heats body tissue 
B. It causes radiation poisoning 
C. It causes the blood count to reach a dangerously low level 
D. It cools body tissue 
G0A02 (B) 
Which property is NOT important in estimating RF energy's effect on body 
tissue? 
A. Its duty cycle 
B. Its critical angle 
C. Its power density 
D. Its frequency 
G0A03 (B) 
Which of the following has the most direct effect on the permitted exposure 
level of RF radiation? 
A. The maximum usable frequency of the ionosphere 
B. The frequency (or wavelength) of the energy 
C. The environment near the transmitter 
D. The distance from the antenna 
G0A04 (C) 
What unit of measurement best describes the biological effects of RF fields at 
frequencies used by amateur operators? 
A. Electric field strength (V/m) 
B. Magnetic field strength (A/m) 
C. Specific absorption rate (W/kg) 
D. Power density (W/cm2) 
G0A05 (D) 
RF radiation in which of the following frequency ranges has the most effect on 
the human eyes? 
A. The 3.5-MHz range 
B. The 2-MHz range 
C. The 50-MHz range 
D. The 1270-MHz range 
G0A06 (A) 
What does the term "athermal effects" of RF radiation mean? 
A. Biological effects from RF energy other than heating 
B. Chemical effects from RF energy on minerals and liquids 
C. A change in the phase of a signal resulting from the heating of an 
antenna 
D. Biological effects from RF energy in excess of the maximum permissible 
exposure level 
G0A07 (B) 
At what frequencies does the human body absorb RF energy at a maximum rate? 
A. The high-frequency (3-30-MHz) range 
B. The very-high-frequency (30-300-MHz) range 
C. The ultra-high-frequency (300-MHz to 3-GHz) range 
D. The super-high-frequency (3-GHz to 30-GHz) range 
G0A08 (D) 
What does "time averaging" mean when it applies to RF radiation exposure? 
A. The average time of day when the exposure occurs 
B. The average time it takes RF radiation to have any long term effect on 
the body 
C. The total time of the exposure, e.g. 6 minutes or 30 minutes 
D. The total RF exposure averaged over a certain time 
G0A09 (D) 
What guideline is used to determine whether or not a routine RF evaluation 
must be performed for an amateur station? 
A. If the transmitter's PEP is 50 watts or more, an evaluation must always 
be performed 
B. If the RF radiation from the antenna system falls within a controlled 
environment, an evaluation must be performed 
C. If the RF radiation from the antenna system falls within an uncontrolled 
environment, an evaluation must be performed 
D. If the transmitter's PEP and frequency are within certain limits given in 
Part 97, an evaluation must be performed 
G0A10 (A) 
If you perform a routine RF evaluation on your station and determine that its 
RF fields exceed the FCC's exposure limits in human-accessible areas, what are 
you required to do? 
A. Take action to prevent human exposure to the excessive RF fields 
B. File an Environmental Impact Statement (EIS-97) with the FCC 
C. Secure written permission from your neighbors to operate above the 
controlled MPE limits 
D. Nothing; simply keep the evaluation in your station records 
G0A11 (C) 
At a site with multiple transmitters operating at the same time, how is each 
transmitter included in the RF exposure site evaluation? 
A. Only the RF field of the most powerful transmitter need be considered 
B. The RF fields of all transmitters are multiplied together 
C. Transmitters that produce more than 5% of the maximum permissible power 
density exposure limit for that transmitter must be included 
D. Only the RF fields from any transmitters operating with high duty-cycle 
modes (greater than 50%) need to be considered 
G0A12 (D) 
What factors can affect the thermal aspects of RF energy exposure to human body tissues? 
A. The body part and duration of its exposure 
B. Frequency and power density 
C. Wave polarization 
D. All of these choices are correct 
G0B RF Safety Rules and Guidelines 
G0B01 (C) 
What are the FCC's RF-safety rules designed to control? 
A. The maximum RF radiated electric field strength 
B. The maximum RF radiated magnetic field strength 
C. The maximum permissible human exposure to all RF radiated fields 
D. The maximum RF radiated power density 
G0B02 (A) 
At a site with multiple transmitters, who must ensure that all FCC RF-safety 
regulations are met? 
A. All licensees contributing more than 5% of the maximum permissible power 
density exposure for that transmitter are equally responsible 
B. Only the licensee of the station producing the strongest RF field is 
responsible 
C. All of the stations at the site are equally responsible, regardless of 
any station's contribution to the total RF field 
D. Only the licensees of stations which are producing an RF field exceeding 
the maximum permissible exposure limit are responsible 
G0B03 (A) 
What effect does duty cycle have when evaluating RF exposure? 
A. Low duty-cycle emissions permit greater short-term exposure levels 
B. High duty-cycle emissions permit greater short-term exposure levels 
C. The duty cycle is not considered when evaluating RF exposure 
D. Any duty cycle may be used as long as it is less than 100 percent 
G0B04 (B) 
What is the threshold power used to determine if an RF environmental 
evaluation is required when the operation takes place in the 15-meter band? 
A. 50 watts PEP 
B. 100 watts PEP 
C. 225 watts PEP 
D. 500 watts PEP 
G0B05 (B) 
Why do the power levels used to determine if an RF environmental evaluation is 
required vary with frequency? 
A. Because amateur operators may use a variety of power levels 
B. Because Maximum Permissible Exposure (MPE) limits are frequency dependent 
C. Because provision must be made for signal loss due to propagation 
D. All of these choices are correct 
G0B06 (A) 
What is the threshold power used to determine if an RF environmental 
evaluation is required when the operation takes