2008 Extra Class Question Pool (UPDATE 02/20/2008) The 2008 Element 4 (Extra Class) question pool is hereby released to public use. This pool will become effective for examinations given on or after July 1, 2008, and will remain active until replaced by a subsequent version. As of this writing, this pool is scheduled to be in service until June 30, 2012. See next page for a list of corrections and updates as of 02/20/2008 Whenever possible, we have included references to the FCC rules for most of the questions in section E1. The citations are included only as a guideline, and while the QPC has made reasonable efforts to insure accuracy, we do not guarantee that such citations are accurate and/or complete. Any graphics required for the questions are included at the end of this document, or are available as a separate file from NCVEC.ORG To assist in viewing fine details of some of the drawings associated with certain questions, we recommend increasing the "zoom" factor to 200% (or larger) when viewing the associated graphic. While every effort was made to insure the accuracy of the material herein, this material was prepared by ordinary human beings, and there is always the possibility that a few typographical or other errors may remain. Users are authorized to make whatever typographic corrections that may be needed, keeping in mind that the basic meaning of a question, answer, or distractor must remain intact. The QPC would appreciate notification of any such errors. There are 738 questions in the pool as released. Please refer any questions to the QPC, by e-mail, to QPC@NCVEC.ORG 20 December 2007 Jim Wiley, KL7CC Chairman, NCVEC Question Pool Committee Anchorage VEC QPC members: Roland Anders, K3RA, Laurel VEC Perry Green, WY1O, ARRL VEC Larry Pollock, NB5X, W5YI VEC The QPC would like to make special note of the assistance provided by: Tom Fuszard, KF9PU, Milwaukee VEC Gordon West, WB6NOA Ward Silver, N0AX, ARRL John Johnson, W3BE WCARS VEC GLAARG VEC Michael Fox, W6MJF Pete Trotter, Master Publishing We also acknowledge assistance from: The ARRL (several persons) Proof-readers from many different VECs Interested hams everywhere who submitted questions and comments, many of which were adopted into this new pool Updates and corrections to 2008 Extra class pool The following corrections, deletions, and updates have been incorporated in this version of the pool. Please use this version for preparing exams and related materials. The following 8 questions were reported as having a problem by one or more persons. However, after further review by the QPC, these questions were determined to be correct as written: E1C05 E1D01 E3B09 E4C08 E5C13 E6D01 E6D02 E7H05 The following questions were edited or deleted: E2B08 - missing "period" following "A" in first distractor - corrected E2E10 - this question was removed by the QPC - do not renumber section E5C14 - Correct answer "D" should read: "Polar coordinates" instead of "Rectangular coordinates" - corrected E5D05 - answers "A" and "B" edited as follows: A. Electric current flow through the space around a permanent magnet B. The region surrounding a magnet through which a magnetic force acts E7F07 inserted missing word "of" in second line of question. Question now reads: Which type of circuit would be a good choice for generating a series of harmonically related receiver calibration signals? E8C04 - this question was removed by the QPC - do not renumber section E9C16 - this question was removed by the QPC - do not renumber section E9E04 - typo in question number, shows as E90E04, corrected to E9E04 E9H - Sub-element title was incorrect. Correct version should read as follows: E9H Effective radiated power; system gains and losses; radio direction finding antennas E9H12 - typo in distractor "B" (remove word "with", between "balanced" and "against") E0 - no section title. Correct section title reads as follows: SUBELEMENT E0 -- Safety [1 exam question -- 1 group] ELEMENT 4 - EXTRA CLASS QUESTION POOL Valid July 1, 2008 through June 30, 2012 SYLLABUS SUBELEMENT E1 -- COMMISSION'S RULES [6 Exam Questions -- 6 Groups] E1A Operating Standards: frequency privileges for Extra Class amateurs; emission standards; automatic message forwarding; frequency sharing; FCC license actions; stations aboard ships or aircraft E1B Station restrictions and special operations: restrictions on station location; general operating restrictions, spurious emissions, control operator reimbursement; antenna structure restrictions; RACES operations E1C Station control: definitions and restrictions pertaining to local, automatic and remote control operation; control operator responsibilities for remote and automatically controlled stations E1D Amateur Satellite service: definitions and purpose; license requirements for space stations; available frequencies and bands; telecommand and telemetry operations; restrictions, and special provisions; notification requirements E1E Volunteer examiner program: definitions, qualifications, preparation and administration of exams; accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements E1F Miscellaneous rules: external RF power amplifiers; Line A; national quiet zone; business communications; compensated communications; spread spectrum; auxiliary stations; reciprocal operating privileges; IARP and CEPT licenses; third party communications with foreign countries; special temporary authority SUBELEMENT E2 -- OPERATING PRACTICES AND PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups] E2A Amateur radio in space: amateur satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies and modes; satellite hardware; satellite operations E2B Television practices: fast scan television standards and techniques; slow scan television standards and techniques E2C Operating methods, part 1: contest and DX operating; spread-spectrum transmissions; automatic HF forwarding; selecting an operating frequency E2D Operating methods, part 2: VHF and UHF digital modes; packet clusters; Automatic Position Reporting System (APRS) E2E Operating methods, part 3: operating HF digital modes; error correction SUBELEMENT E3 -- RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups] E3A Propagation and technique, part 1: Earth-Moon-Earth communications; meteor scatter E3B Propagation and technique, part 2: transequatorial; long path; gray line; multi- path propagation E3C Propagation and technique, part 3: Auroral propagation; selective fading; radio- path horizon; take-off angle over flat or sloping terrain; earth effects on propagation; less common propagation modes SUBELEMENT E4 -- AMATEUR RADIO TECHNOLOGY AND MEASUREMENTS [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups] E4A Test equipment: analog and digital instruments; spectrum and network analyzers, antenna analyzers; oscilloscopes; testing transistors; RF measurements E4B Measurement technique and limitations: instrument accuracy and performance limitations; probes; techniques to minimize errors; measurement of "Q"; instrument calibration E4C Receiver performance characteristics, part 1: phase noise, capture effect, noise floor, image rejection, MDS, signal-to-noise-ratio; selectivity E4D Receiver performance characteristics, part 2: blocking dynamic range, intermodulation and cross-modulation interference; 3rd order intercept; desensitization; preselection E4E Noise suppression: system noise; electrical appliance noise; line noise; locating noise sources; DSP noise reduction; noise blankers SUBELEMENT E5 -- ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [4 Exam Questions -- 4 Groups] E5A Resonance and Q: characteristics of resonant circuits: series and parallel resonance; Q; half-power bandwidth; phase relationships in reactive circuits E5B Time constants and phase relationships: R/L/C time constants: definition; time constants in RL and RC circuits; phase angle between voltage and current; phase angles of series and parallel circuits E5C Impedance plots and coordinate systems: plotting impedances in polar coordinates; rectangular coordinates E5D AC and RF energy in real circuits: skin effect; electrostatic and electromagnetic fields; reactive power; power factor; coordinate systems SUBELEMENT E6 -- CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [6 Exam Questions -- 6 Groups] E6A Semiconductor materials and devices: semiconductor materials (germanium, silicon, P-type, N-type); transistor types: NPN, PNP, junction, power; field-effect transistors: enhancement mode; depletion mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel; P-channel E6B Semiconductor diodes E6C Integrated circuits: TTL digital integrated circuits; CMOS digital integrated circuits; gates E6D Optical devices and toroids: vidicon and cathode-ray tube devices; charge-coupled devices (CCDs); liquid crystal displays (LCDs); toroids: permeability, core material, selecting, winding E6E Piezoelectric crystals and MMICS: quartz crystals (as used in oscillators and filters); monolithic amplifiers (MMICs) E6F Optical components and power systems: photoconductive principles and effects, photovoltaic systems, optical couplers, optical sensors, and optoisolators SUBELEMENT E7 -- PRACTICAL CIRCUITS [8 Exam Questions -- 8 Groups] E7 Digital circuits: digital circuit principles and logic circuits: classes of logic elements; positive and negative logic; frequency dividers; truth tables E7B Amplifiers: Class of operation; vacuum tube and solid-state circuits; distortion and intermodulation; spurious and parasitic suppression; microwave amplifiers E7C Filters and matching networks: filters and impedance matching networks: types of networks; types of filters; filter applications; filter characteristics; impedance matching; DSP filtering E7D Power supplies and voltage regulators E7E Modulation and demodulation: reactance, phase and balanced modulators; detectors; mixer stages; DSP modulation and demodulation; software defined radio systems E7F Frequency markers and counters: frequency divider circuits; frequency marker generators; frequency counters E7G Active filters and op-amps: active audio filters; characteristics; basic circuit design; operational amplifiers E7H Oscillators and signal sources: types of oscillators; synthesizers and phase-locked loops; direct digital synthesizers SUBELEMENT E8 -- SIGNALS AND EMISSIONS [4 Exam Questions -- 4 Groups] E8A AC waveforms: sine, square, sawtooth and irregular waveforms; AC measurements; average and PEP of RF signals; pulse and digital signal waveforms E8B Modulation and demodulation: modulation methods; modulation index and deviation ratio; pulse modulation; frequency and time division multiplexing E8C Digital signals: digital communications modes; CW; information rate vs. bandwidth; spread-spectrum communications; modulation methods E8D Waves, measurements, and RF grounding: peak-to-peak values, polarization; RF grounding SUBELEMENT E9 -- ANTENNAS AND TRANSMISSION LINES [8 Exam Questions -- 8 Groups] E9A Isotropic and gain antennas: definition; used as a standard for comparison; radiation pattern; basic antenna parameters: radiation resistance and reactance, gain, beamwidth, efficiency E9B Antenna patterns: E and H plane patterns; gain as a function of pattern; antenna design (computer modeling of antennas); Yagi antennas E9C Wire and phased vertical antennas: beverage antennas; terminated and resonant rhombic antennas; elevation above real ground; ground effects as related to polarization; take-off angles E9D Directional antennas: gain; satellite antennas; antenna beamwidth; losses; SWR bandwidth; antenna efficiency; shortened and mobile antennas; grounding E9E Matching: matching antennas to feed lines; power dividers E9F Transmission lines: characteristics of open and shorted feed lines: 1/8 wavelength; 1/4 wavelength; 1/2 wavelength; feed lines: coax versus open-wire; velocity factor; electrical length; transformation characteristics of line terminated in impedance not equal to characteristic impedance E9G The Smith chart E9F SUBELEMENT E0 - Safety - [1 exam question -- 1 group] E0A Safety: amateur radio safety practices; RF radiation hazards; hazardous materials ELEMENT 4 - EXTRA CLASS QUESTION POOL Valid July 1, 2008 through June 30, 2012 741 questions total SUBELEMENT E1 -- COMMISSION'S RULES [6 Exam Questions -- 6 Groups] E1A Operating Standards: frequency privileges for Extra Class amateurs; emission standards; automatic message forwarding; frequency sharing; FCC license actions; stations aboard ships or aircraft E1A01 (D) [97.301, 97.305] When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies will result in a normal USB emission being within the band? A. The exact upper band edge B. 300 Hz below the upper band edge C. 1 kHz below the upper band edge D. 3 kHz below the upper band edge ~~ E1A02 (D) [97.301, 97.305] When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies will result in a normal LSB emission being within the band? A. The exact lower band edge B. 300 Hz above the lower band edge C. 1 kHz above the lower band edge D. 3 kHz above the lower band edge ~~ E1A03 (C) [97.301, 97.305] With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 14.349 MHz USB. Is it legal to return the call using upper sideband on the same frequency? A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 20 meter band C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the band edge D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions above 14.340 MHz ~~ E1A04 (C) [97.301, 97.305] With your transceiver displaying the carrier frequency of phone signals, you hear a DX station's CQ on 3.601 MHz LSB. Is it legal to return the call using lower sideband on the same frequency? A. Yes, because the DX station initiated the contact B. Yes, because the displayed frequency is within the 75 meter phone band segment C. No, my sidebands will extend beyond the edge of the phone band segment D. No, USA stations are not permitted to use phone emissions below 3.610 MHz ~~ E1A05 (C) [97.305] Which is the only amateur band that does not permit the transmission of phone or image emissions? A. 160 meters B. 60 meters C. 30 meters D. 17 meters ~~ E1A06 (B) [97.303] What is the maximum power output permitted on the 60 meter band? A. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator B. 50 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole C. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to an isotropic radiator D. 100 watts PEP effective radiated power relative to a dipole ~~ E1A07 (D) [97.303] What is the only amateur band where transmission on specific channels rather than a range of frequencies is permitted? A. 12 meter band B. 17 meter band C. 30 meter band D. 60 meter band ~~ E1A08 (C) [97.303] What is the only emission type permitted to be transmitted on the 60 meter band by an amateur station? A. CW B. RTTY Frequency shift keying C. Single sideband, upper sideband only D. Single sideband, lower sideband only ~~ E1A09 (A) [97.301] Which frequency bands contain at least one segment authorized only to control operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license? A. 80/75, 40, 20 and 15 meters B. 80/75, 40, 20, and 10 meters C. 80/75, 40, 30 and 10 meters D. 160, 80/75, 40 and 20 meters ~~ E1A10 (B) [97.219] If a station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is primarily accountable for the rules violation? A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station B. The control operator of the originating station C. The control operators of all the stations in the system D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications ~~ E1A11 (A) [97.219] What is the first action you should take if your digital message forwarding station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules? A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it B. Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules C. Notify the nearest FCC Field Engineer's office D. Discontinue forwarding all messages ~~ E1A12 (A) [97.11] If an amateur station is installed on board a ship or aircraft, what condition must be met before the station is operated? A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship or the pilot in command of the aircraft B. The amateur station operator must agree to not transmit when the main ship or aircraft radios are in use C. It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship or aircraft power supply D. Its operator must have an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement on his or her amateur license ~~ E1A13 (B) [97.5] When a US-registered vessel is in international waters, what type of FCC-issued license or permit is required to transmit amateur communications from an on-board amateur transmitter? A. Any amateur license with an FCC Marine or Aircraft endorsement B. Any amateur license or reciprocal permit for alien amateur licensee C. Only General class or higher amateur licenses D. An unrestricted Radiotelephone Operator Permit ~~ E1B Station restrictions and special operations: restrictions on station location; general operating restrictions, spurious emissions, control operator reimbursement; antenna structure restrictions; RACES operations E1B01 (D) [97.3] Which of the following constitutes a spurious emission? A. An amateur station transmission made at random without the proper call sign identification B. A signal transmitted in a way that prevents its detection by any station other than the intended recipient C. Any transmitted bogus signal that interferes with another licensed radio station D. An emission outside its necessary bandwidth that can be reduced or eliminated without affecting the information transmitted ~~ E1B02 (D) [97.13] Which of the following factors might cause the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure to be restricted? A. The location is in or near an area of political conflict, military maneuvers or major construction B. The location's geographical or horticultural importance C. The location is in an ITU zone designated for coordination with one or more foreign governments D. The location is significant to our environment, American history, architecture, or culture. ~~ E1B03 (A) [97.13] Within what distance must an amateur station protect an FCC monitoring facility from harmful interference? A. 1 mile B. 3 miles C. 10 miles D. 30 miles ~~ E1B04 (C) [97.13, 1.1305-1.1319] What must be done before placing an amateur station within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places? A. A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service B. A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC D. A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior ~~ E1B05 (B) [97.15] What height restrictions apply to an amateur station antenna structure not close to a public use airport unless the FAA is notified and it is registered with the FCC? A. It must not extend more than 300 feet above average height of terrain surrounding the site B. It must be no higher than 200 feet above ground level at its site C. There are no height restrictions because the structure obviously would not be a hazard to aircraft in flight D. It must not extend more than 100 feet above sea level or the rim of the nearest valley or canyon ~~ E1B06 (A) [97.15] Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site within 20,000 feet of a public use airport? A. You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC B. No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height C. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority ~~ E1B07 (A) [97.15] Whose approval is required before erecting an amateur station antenna located at or near a public use airport if the antenna would exceed a certain height depending upon the antenna's distance from the nearest active runway? A. The FAA must be notified and it must be registered with the FCC B. Approval must be obtained from the airport manager C. Approval must be obtained from the local zoning authorities D. The FAA must approve any antenna structure that is higher than 20 feet ~~ E1B08 (D) [97.121] On what frequencies may the operation of an amateur station be restricted if its emissions cause interference to the reception of a domestic broadcast station on a receiver of good engineering design? A. On the frequency used by the domestic broadcast station B. On all frequencies below 30 MHz C. On all frequencies above 30 MHz D. On the interfering amateur service transmitting frequencies ~~ E1B09 (B) [97.3] What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)? A. A radio service using amateur service frequencies on a regular basis for communications that can reasonably be furnished through other radio services B. A radio service of amateur stations for civil defense communications during periods of local, regional, or national civil emergencies C. A radio service using amateur service frequencies for broadcasting to the public during periods of local, regional or national civil emergencies D. A radio service using local government frequencies by Amateur Radio operators for civil emergency communications ~~ E1B10 (C) [97.407] Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES? A. Only those club stations licensed to Amateur Extra class operators B. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a Technician class operator's station C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) ~~ E1B11 (A) [97.407] What frequencies are normally authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES? A. All amateur service frequencies otherwise authorized to the control operator B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands C. Specific local government channels D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels ~~ E1B12 (B) [97.407] What are the frequencies authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES during a period when the President's War Emergency Powers are in force? A. All frequencies in the amateur service authorized to the control operator B. Specific amateur service frequency segments authorized in FCC Part 214 C. Specific local government channels D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels ~~ E1B13 (C) [97.407] What communications are permissible in RACES? A. Any type of communications when there is no emergency B. Any Amateur Radio Emergency Service communications C. Authorized civil defense emergency communications affecting the immediate safety of life and property D. National defense and security communications authorized by the President ~~ E1C LOCAL, REMOTE AND AUTOMATIC CONTROL - 10 questions Definitions and restrictions pertaining to local, automatic and remote control operation; amateur radio and the Internet; control operator responsibilities for remote and automatically controlled stations E1C01 (D) [97.3] What is a remotely controlled station? A. A station operated away from its regular home location B. A station controlled by someone other than the licensee C. A station operating under automatic control D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link ~~ E1C02 (A) [97.3, 97.109] What is meant by automatic control of a station? A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at a control point B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatically C. Remotely controlling a station's antenna pattern through a directional control link D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station ~~ E1C03 (B) [97.3, 97.109] How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control? A. Under local control there is no control operator B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point C. Under automatic control there is no control operator D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point ~~ E1C04 (B) [97.109] When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications? A. Never B. Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration ~~ E1C05 (A) [97.109] When may an automatically controlled station originate third party communications? A. Never B. Only when transmitting an RTTY or data emissions C. When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations D. When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration ~~ E1C06 (C) [97.109] Which of the following statements concerning remotely controlled amateur stations is true? A. Only Extra Class operators may be the control operator of a remote station B. A control operator need not be present at the control point C. A control operator must be present at the control point D. Repeater and auxiliary stations may not be remotely controlled ~~ E1C07 (C) [97.3] What is meant by local control? A. Controlling a station through a local auxiliary link B. Automatically manipulating local station controls C. Direct manipulation of the transmitter by a control operator D. Controlling a repeater using a portable handheld transceiver ~~ E1C08 (B) [97.213] What is the maximum permissible duration of a remotely controlled station's transmissions if its control link malfunctions? A. 30 seconds B. 3 minutes C. 5 minutes D. 10 minutes ~~ E1C09 (D) [97.205] Which of these frequencies are available for automatically controlled ground-station repeater operation? A. 18.110 - 18.168 MHz B. 24.940 - 24.990 MHz C. 10.100 - 10.150 MHz D. 29.500 - 29.700 MHz ~~ E1C10 (B) [97.113] What types of amateur stations may automatically retransmit the radio signals of other amateur stations? A. Only beacon, repeater or space stations B. Only auxiliary, repeater or space stations C. Only earth stations, repeater stations or model crafts D. Only auxiliary, beacon or space stations ~~ E1D Amateur Satellite service: definitions and purpose; license requirements for space stations; available frequencies and bands; telecommand and telemetry operations; restrictions, and special provisions; notification requirements E1D01 (A) [97.3] What is the definition of the term telemetry? A. One-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument B. A two-way interactive transmission C. A two-way single channel transmission of data D. One-way transmission that initiates, modifies, or terminates the functions of a device at a distance ~~ E1D02 (C) [97.3] What is the amateur-satellite service? A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self-training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites C. A radio communications service using amateur stations on satellites D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for weather information gathering ~~ E1D03 (B) [97.3] What is a telecommand station in the amateur satellite service? A. An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites B. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate certain functions of a space station C. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface D. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space ~~ E1D04 (A) [97.3] What is an Earth station in the amateur satellite service? A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface for communications with amateur stations by means of objects in space B. An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites C. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space D. Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth ~~ E1D05 (C) [97.207] What class of licensee is authorized to be the control operator of a space station? A. Any except those of Technician Class operators B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators C. A holder of any class of license D. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators ~~ E1D06 (A) [97.207] Which of the following special provisions must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements? A. The space station must be capable of effecting a cessation of transmissions by telecommand when so ordered by the FCC B. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA D. The station call sign must appear on all sides of the spacecraft ~~ E1D07 (A) [97.207] Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations? A. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m B. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m and 10m bands C. 40m, 30m, 20m, 15m, 12m and 10m bands D. All HF bands ~~ E1D08 (D) [97.207] Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations? A. 6 meters and 2 meters B. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters C. 2 meters and 1.25 meters D. 2 meters ~~ E1D09 (B) [97.207] Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station? A. 70 cm B. 70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm C. 70 cm and 33 cm D. 33 cm and 13 cm ~~ E1D10 (B) [97.211] Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations? A. Any amateur station designated by NASA B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee C. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E1D11 (D) [97.209] Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations? A. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators C. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator ~~ E1D12 (B) [97.207] Who must be notified before launching an amateur space station? A. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration, Houston, TX B. The FCC's International Bureau, Washington, DC C. The Amateur Satellite Corp., Washington, DC D. All of these answers are correct ~~ E1E Volunteer examiner program: definitions, qualifications, preparation and administration of exams; accreditation; question pools; documentation requirements E1E01 (D) [97.509] What is the minimum number of qualified VEs required to administer an Element 4 amateur operator license examination? A. 5 B. 2 C. 4 D. 3 ~~ E1E02 (C) [97.523] Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed? A. In FCC Part 97 B. In an FCC-maintained question pool C. In the VEC-maintained question pool D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order ~~ E1E03 (A) [97.523] Who is responsible for maintaining the question pools from which all amateur license examination questions must be taken? A. All of the VECs B. The VE team C. The VE question pool team D. The FCC's Wireless Telecommunications Bureau ~~ E1E04 (C) [97.521] What is a Volunteer Examiner Coordinator? A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations D. The person that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager ~~ E1E05 (B) [97.525, 97.3] What is a VE? A. An amateur operator who is approved by three or more fellow volunteer examiners to administer amateur license examinations B. An amateur operator who is approved by a VEC to administer amateur operator license examinations C. An amateur operator who administers amateur license examinations for a fee D. An amateur operator who is approved by an FCC staff member to administer amateur operator license examinations ~~ E1E06 (A) [97.509] What is a VE team? A. A group of at least three VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license B. The VEC staff C. One or two VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license D. A group of FCC Volunteer Enforcers who investigate Amateur Rules violations ~~ E1E07 (C) [97.509] Which of the following persons seeking to become VEs cannot be accredited? A. Persons holding less than an Advanced Class operator license B. Persons less than 21 years of age C. Persons who have ever had an amateur operator or amateur station license suspended or revoked D. Persons who are employees of the federal government ~~ E1E08 (D) [97.5091, 97.525] Which of the following best describes the Volunteer Examiner accreditation process? A. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted B. The amateur operator applying must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau C. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from a VE team D. The procedure by which a VEC confirms that the VE applicant meets FCC requirements to serve as an examiner ~~ E1E09 (A) [97.509] Where must the VE team be while administering an examination? A. All of the administering VEs must be present where they can observe the examinees throughout the entire examination B. The VEs must leave the room after handing out the exam(s) to allow the examinees to concentrate on the exam material C. The VEs may be elsewhere provided at least one VE is present and is observing the examinees throughout the entire examination D. The VEs may be anywhere as long as they each certify in writing that examination was administered properly ~~ E1E10 (C) [97.509] Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session? A. The VEC coordinating the session B. The FCC C. Each administering VE D. The VE session manager ~~ E1E11 (B) [97.509] What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination? A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination B. Immediately terminate the candidate's examination C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results D. Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session ~~ E1E12 (C) [97.509] To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination? A. Employees of the VE B. Friends of the VE C. The VE's close relatives as listed in the FCC rules D. All these answers are correct ~~ E1E13 (A) [97.509] What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination? A. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant B. A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence C. A sentence of up to one year in prison D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E1E14 (C) [97.509] [edited, was E1F19, edited] What must the VE team do with the examinee's test papers once they have finished the examination? A. The VE team must collect and send them to the NCVEC B. The VE team must collect and send them to the coordinating VEC for grading C. The VE team must collect and grade them immediately D. The VE team must collect and send them to the FCC for grading ~~ E1E15 (B) [97.509] What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license? A. Photocopy all examination documents and forwards them to the FCC for processing B. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the VE requirements C. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license D. All these answers are correct ~~ E1E16 (A) [97.509] What must the VE team do with the application form if the examinee does not pass the exam? A. Return the application document to the examinee B. Maintain the application form with the VEC's records C. Send it to the FCC D. Destroy the application form ~~ E1E17 (A) [97.519] What are the consequences of failing to appear for re-administration of an examination when so directed by the FCC? A. The licensee's license will be cancelled B. The person may be fined or imprisoned C. The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant D. All of the above ~~ E1E18 (A) [97.527] For which types of out-of-pocket expenses may VEs and VECs be reimbursed? A. Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course C. No expenses are authorized for reimbursement D. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials ~~ E1E19 (A) [97.509, 97.527] How much reimbursement may the VE team and VEC accept for preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination? A. Actual out-of-pocket expenses B. The national minimum hourly wage for time spent providing examination services C. Up to the maximum fee per examinee announced by the FCC annually D. As much as the examinee is willing to donate ~~ E1E20 (C) [97.509] What is the minimum age to be a volunteer examiner? A. 13 years old B. 16 years old C. 18 years old D. 21 years old ~~ E1F Miscellaneous rules: external RF power amplifiers; Line A; national quiet zone; business communications; compensated communications; spread spectrum; auxiliary stations; reciprocal operating privileges; IARP and CEPT licenses; third party communications with foreign countries; special temporary authority E1F01 (B) [97.305] On what frequencies are spread spectrum transmissions permitted? A. Only on amateur frequencies above 50 MHz B. Only on amateur frequencies above 222 MHz C. Only on amateur frequencies above 420 MHz D. Only on amateur frequencies above 144 MHz ~~ E1F02 (A) [97.5] Which of the following operating arrangements allows an FCC-licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries, and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US? A. CEPT agreement B. IARP agreement C. ITU reciprocal license D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E1F03 (B) [97.5] Which of the following operating arrangements allow an FCC-licensed US citizen and many Central and South American amateur operators to operate in each other's countries? A. CEPT agreement B. IARP agreement C. ITU agreement D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E1F04 (B) [97.315] What does it mean if an external RF amplifier is listed on the FCC database as certificated for use in the amateur service? A. The RF amplifier may be marketed for use in any radio service B. That particular RF amplifier may be marketed for use in the amateur service C. All similar RF amplifiers produced by other manufacturers may be marketed D. All RF amplifiers produced by that manufacturer may be marketed ~~ E1F05 (A) [97.315] Under what circumstances may a dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification? A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government ~~ E1F06 (A) [97.3] Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes "Line A"? A. A line roughly parallel to and south of the US-Canadian border B. A line roughly parallel to and west of the US Atlantic coastline C. A line roughly parallel to and north of the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline D. A line roughly parallel to and east of the US Pacific coastline ~~ E1F07 (D) [97.303] Amateur stations may not transmit in which of the following frequency segments if they are located north of Line A? A. 440 - 450 MHz. B. 53 - 54 MHz C. 222 - 223 MHz D. 420 - 430 MHz ~~ E1F08 (C) [97.3] What is the National Radio Quiet Zone? A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area C. An area surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral ~~ E1F09 (D) [97.113] When may the control operator of a repeater accept payment for providing communication services to another party? A. When the repeater is operating under portable power B. When the repeater is operating under local control C. During Red Cross or other emergency service drills D. Under no circumstances ~~ E1F10 (D) [97.113] When may an amateur station send a message to a business? A. When the total money involved does not exceed $25 B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency C. When transmitting international third-party communications D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications ~~ E1F11 (A) [97.113] Which of the following types of amateur-operator-to-amateur-operator communications are prohibited? A. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules B. Communications that have a political content, except as allowed by the Fairness Doctrine C. Communications that have a religious content D. Communications in a language other than English ~~ E1F12 (D) [97.311] FCC-licensed amateur stations may use spread spectrum (SS) emissions to communicate under which of the following conditions? A. When the other station is in an area regulated by the FCC B. When the other station is in a country permitting SS communications C. When the transmission is not used to obscure the meaning of any communication D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E1F13 (C) [97.311] What is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting spread spectrum communications? A. 1 W B. 1.5 W C. 100 W D. 1.5 kW ~~ E1F14 (D) [97.317] Which of the following best describes one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of FCC certification? A. It must produce full legal output when driven by not more than 5 watts of mean RF input power B. It must be capable of external RF switching between its input and output networks C. It must exhibit a gain of 0 dB or less over its full output range D. It must satisfy the FCC's spurious emission standards when operated at its full output power ~~ E1F15 (B) [97.201] Who may be the control operator of an auxiliary station? A. Any licensed amateur operator B. Only Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators C. Only General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators D. Only Amateur Extra Class operators ~~ E1F16 (C) [97.117] What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries? A. Business-related messages B. Automatic retransmissions of any amateur communications C. Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E1F17 (A) [1.931] Under what circumstances might the FCC issue a "Special Temporary Authority" (STA) to an amateur station? A. To provide for experimental amateur communications B. To allow regular operation on Land Mobile channels C. To provide additional spectrum for personal use D. To provide temporary operation while awaiting normal licensing ~~ SUBELEMENT E2 - OPERATING PRACTICES AND PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions - 5 Groups] E2A Amateur radio in space: amateur satellites; orbital mechanics; frequencies and modes; satellite hardware; satellite operations E2A01 (C) What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? A. From west to east B. From east to west C. From south to north D. From north to south ~~ E2A02 (A) What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite? A. From north to south B. From west to east C. From east to west D. From south to north ~~ E2A03 (C) What is the orbital period of a satellite? A. The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit B. The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit C. The time it takes for a satellite to complete one revolution around the Earth D. The time it takes for a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee ~~ E2A04 (B) What is meant by the term "mode" as applied to an amateur radio satellite? A. The type of signals that can be relayed through the satellite B. The satellite's uplink and downlink frequency bands C. The satellite's orientation with respect to the Earth D. Whether the satellite is in a polar or equatorial orbit ~~ E2A05 (D) What do the letters in a satellite's mode designator specify? A. Power limits for uplink and downlink transmissions B. The location of the ground control station C. The polarization of uplink and downlink signals D. The uplink and downlink frequencies ~~ E2A06 (A) On what band would a satellite receive signals if it were operating in mode U/V? A. 432 MHz B. 144 MHz C. 50 MHz D. 28 MHz ~~ E2A07 (D) Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder? A. FM and CW B. SSB and SSTV C. PSK and Packet D. All these answers are correct ~~ E2A08 (B) What is the primary reason for satellite users to limit their transmit ERP? A. For RF exposure safety B. Because the satellite transmitter output power is limited C. To avoid limiting the signal of the other users D. To avoid interfering with terrestrial QSOs ~~ E2A09 (A) What do the terms L band and S band specify with regard to satellite communications? A. The 23 centimeter and 13 centimeter bands B. The 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands C. FM and Digital Store-and-Forward systems D. Which sideband to use ~~ E2A10 (A) Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a rapidly repeating fading effect? A. Because the satellite is rotating B. Because of ionospheric absorption C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude D. Because of the Doppler effect ~~ E2A11 (B) What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? A. A linearly polarized antenna B. A circularly polarized antenna C. An isotropic antenna D. A log-periodic dipole array ~~ E2A12 (D) What is one way to predict the location of a satellite at a given time? A. By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite B. By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination C. By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination D. By calculations using the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite ~~ E2A13 (B) What type of satellite appears to stay in one position in the sky? A. HEO B. Geosynchronous C. Geomagnetic D. LEO ~~ E2A14 (B) What happens to a satellite's transmitted signal due to the Doppler Effect? A. The signal strength is reduced as the satellite passes overhead B. The signal frequency shifts lower as the satellite passes overhead C. The signal frequency shifts higher as the satellite passes overhead D. The polarization of the signal continually rotates ~~ E2B Television practices: fast scan television standards and techniques; slow scan television standards and techniques E2B01 (A)[edited] How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system? A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 D. 120 ~~ E2B02 (C) How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan (NTSC) television frame? A. 30 B. 60 C. 525 D. 1080 ~~ E2B03 (D) How is an interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan (NTSC) television system? A. By scanning two fields simultaneously B. By scanning each field from bottom to top C. By scanning lines from left to right in one field and right to left in the next D. By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered ones in the next ~~ E2B04 (B) What is blanking in a video signal? A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left or from bottom to top C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern ~~ E2B05 (C) Which of the following is an advantage of using vestigial sideband for standard fast scan TV transmissions? A. The vestigial sideband carries the audio information B. The vestigial sideband contains chroma information C. Vestigial sideband reduces bandwidth while allowing for simple video detector circuitry D. Vestigial sideband provides high frequency emphasis to sharpen the picture ~~ E2B06 (A) What is vestigial sideband modulation? A. Amplitude modulation in which one complete sideband and a portion of the other sideband is transmitted B. A type of modulation in which one sideband is inverted C. Narrow-band FM transmission achieved by filtering one sideband from the audio before frequency modulating the carrier D. Spread spectrum modulation achieved by applying FM modulation following single sideband amplitude modulation ~~ E2B07 (B) What is the name of the video signal component that carries color information? A. Luminance B. Chroma C. Hue D. Spectral Intensity ~~ E2B08 (D) Which of the following is a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television? A. Frequency-modulated sub-carrier B. A separate VHF or UHF audio link C. Frequency modulation of the video carrier D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E2B09 (D) What hardware, other than a transceiver with SSB capability and a suitable computer, is needed to decode SSTV based on Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM)? A. A special IF converter B. A special front end limiter C. A special notch filter to remove synchronization pulses D. No other hardware is needed ~~ E2B10 (A) Which of the following is an acceptable bandwidth for Digital Radio Mondiale (DRM) based voice or SSTV digital transmissions made on the HF amateur bands? A. 3 KHz B. 10 KHz C. 15 KHz D. 20 KHz ~~ E2B11 (B) What is the function of the Vertical Interval Signaling (VIS) code transmitted as part of an SSTV transmission? A. To lock the color burst oscillator in color SSTV images B. To identify the SSTV mode being used C. To provide vertical synchronization D. To identify the callsign of the station transmitting ~~ E2B12 (D) How are analog slow-scan television images typically transmitted on the HF bands? A. Video is converted to equivalent Baudot representation B. Video is converted to equivalent ASCII representation C. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using FM D. Varying tone frequencies representing the video are transmitted using single sideband ~~ E2B13 (C) How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture? A. 30 to 60 B. 60 or 100 C. 128 or 256 D. 180 or 360 ~~ E2B14 (A) What aspect of an amateur slow-scan television signal encodes the brightness of the picture? A. Tone frequency B. Tone amplitude C. Sync amplitude D. Sync frequency ~~ E2B15 (A) What signals SSTV receiving equipment to begin a new picture line? A. Specific tone frequencies B. Elapsed time C. Specific tone amplitudes D. A two-tone signal ~~ E2B16 (D) Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations? A. PAL B. DRM C. Scottie D. NTSC ~~ E2B17 (A) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of FMTV (Frequency-Modulated Amateur Television) as compared to vestigial sideband AM television? A. Immunity from fading due to limiting B. Poor weak signal performance C. Greater signal bandwidth D. Greater complexity of receiving equipment ~~ E2B18 (B) What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal? A. 600 Hz B. 3 kHz C. 2 MHz D. 6 MHz ~~ E2B19 (D) On which of the following frequencies is one likely to find FMTV transmissions? A. 14.230 MHz B. 29.6 MHz C. 52.525 MHz D. 1255 MHz ~~ E2B20 (C) What special operating frequency restrictions are imposed on slow scan TV transmissions? A. None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies B. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz C. They are restricted to phone band segments and their bandwidth can be no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz ~~ E2B21 (B) [NEW, adapted from E2B16] If 100 IRE units correspond to the most-white level in the NTSC standard video format, what is the level of the most-black signal? A. 140 IRE units B. 7.5 IRE units C. 0 IRE units D. -40 IRE units ~~ E2C Operating methods, part 1: contest and DX operating; spread-spectrum transmissions; automatic HF forwarding; selecting an operating frequency E2C01 (A) Which of the following is true about contest operating? A. Operators are permitted to make contacts even if they do not submit a log B. Interference to other amateurs is unavoidable and therefore acceptable C. It is mandatory to transmit the call sign of the station being worked as part of every transmission to that station D. Every contest requires a signal report in the exchange ~~ E2C02 (A) Which of the following best describes "self spotting" in regards to contest operating? A. The generally prohibited practice of posting one's own call sign and frequency on a call sign spotting network B. The acceptable practice of manually posting the call signs of stations on a call sign spotting network C. A manual technique for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station D. An automatic method for rapidly zero beating or tuning to a station's frequency before calling that station ~~ E2C03 (A) From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded? A. 30 meters B. 6 meters C. 2 meters D. 33 cm ~~ E2C04 (D) On which of the following frequencies is an amateur radio contest contact generally discouraged? A. 3.525 MHz B. 14.020 MHz C. 28.330 MHz D. 146.52 MHz ~~ E2C05 (B) [97.301] Which of the following frequencies would generally be acceptable for U.S. stations to work other U.S. stations in a phone contest? A. 5405 kHz B. 14.310 MHz C. 50.050 MHz D. 146.52 MHz ~~ E2C06 (C) During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band segment would you expect to find the highest level of activity? A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests B. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency C. In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency ~~ E2C07 (A) What is the Cabrillo format? A. A standard for organizing information in contest log files B. A method of exchanging information during a contest QSO C. The most common set of contest rules D. The rules of order for meetings between contest sponsors ~~ E2C08 (A) Why are received spread-spectrum signals resistant to interference? A. Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver B. The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered C. The receiver is always equipped with a digital blanker circuit D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies ~~ E2C09 (D) How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping (FH) work? A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies B. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear C. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence D. The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station ~~ E2C10 (D) Why might a phone DX station state that he is listening on another frequency? A. Because the DX station may be transmitting on a frequency that is prohibited to some responding stations B. To separate the calling stations from the DX station C. To reduce interference, thereby improving operating efficiency D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E2C11 (A) How should you generally sign your call when attempting to contact a DX station working a "pileup" or in a contest? A. Send your full call sign once or twice B. Send only the last two letters of your call sign until you make contact C. Send your full call sign and grid square D. Send the call sign of the DX station three times, the words "this is", then your call sign three times ~~ E2C12 (B) In North America during low sunspot activity, when signals from Europe become weak and fluttery across an entire HF band two to three hours after sunset, what might help to contact other European DX stations? A. Switch to a higher frequency HF band B. Switch to a lower frequency HF band C. Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass D. Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band ~~ E2D Operating methods, part 2: VHF and UHF digital modes; packet clusters; Automatic Position Reporting System (APRS) E2D01 (B) What does "command mode" mean in packet operations? A. Your computer is ready to run packet communications software B. The TNC is ready to receive instructions via the keyboard C. Your TNC has received a command packet from a remote TNC D. The computer is ready to be set up to communicate with the TNC ~~ E2D02 (A) What is the definition of "baud"? A. The number of data symbols transmitted per second B. The number of characters transmitted per second C. The number of characters transmitted per minute D. The number of words transmitted per minute ~~ E2D03 (A) Which of the follow is true when comparing HF and 2-meter packet operations? A. HF packet typically uses FSK with a data rate of 300 baud; 2-meter packet uses AFSK with a data rate of 1200 baud B. HF packet and 2-meter packet operations use different codes for information exchange C. HF packet is limited to Amateur Extra class amateur licensees; 2-meter packet is open to all but Novice Class amateur licensees D. HF and 2-meter packet operations are both limited to CW/Data-only band segments ~~ E2D04 (C) What is the purpose of digital store-and-forward functions on an Amateur satellite? A. To upload operational software for the transponder B. To delay download of telemetry until the satellite is over the control station C. To store digital messages in the satellite for later download by other stations D. To relay messages between satellites ~~ E2D05 (B) Which of the following techniques is normally used by low-earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world? A. Digipeating B. Store-and-forward C. Multi-satellite relaying D. Node hopping ~~ E2D06 (B) Which of the following is a commonly used 2-meter APRS frequency? A. 144.20 MHz B. 144.39 MHz C. 145.02 MHz D. 146.52 MHz ~~ E2D07 (A) Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS? A. AX.25 B. 802.11 C. PACTOR D. AMTOR ~~ E2D08 (D) Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data? A. Connect frames B. Disconnect frames C. Acknowledgement frames D. Unnumbered Information frames ~~ E2D09 (D) Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput? A. AMTOR B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY C. PSK31 D. 300-baud packet ~~ E2D10 (C) How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity? A. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital B. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points C. An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show a mobile station's position during the event D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E2D11 (D) Which of the following data sources are needed to accurately transmit your geographical location over the APRS network? A. The NMEA-0183 formatted data from a Global Positioning System (GPS) satellite receiver B. The latitude and longitude of your location, preferably in degrees, minutes and seconds, entered into the APRS computer software C. The NMEA-0183 formatted data from a LORAN navigation system D. Any of these choices is correct ~~ E2E Operating methods, part 3: operating HF digital modes; error correction E2E01 (B) What is a common method of transmitting data emissions below 30 MHz? A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal B. FSK/AFSK C. Pulse modulation D. Spread spectrum ~~ E2E02 (A) What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to digital operation? A. Forward Error Correction B. First Error Correction C. Fatal Error Correction D. Final Error Correction ~~ E2E03 (C) How is Forward Error Correction implemented? A. By the receiving station repeating each block of three data characters B. By transmitting a special algorithm to the receiving station along with the data characters C. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors D. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm ~~ E2E04 (A) What is indicated when one of the ellipses in an FSK crossed-ellipse display suddenly disappears? A. Selective fading has occurred B. One of the signal filters has saturated C. The receiver has drifted 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency D. The mark and space signal have been inverted ~~ E2E05 (D) How does ARQ accomplish error correction? A. Special binary codes provide automatic correction B. Special polynomial codes provide automatic correction C. If errors are detected, redundant data is substituted D. If errors are detected, a retransmission is requested ~~ E2E06 (C) What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications? A. 48 baud B. 110 baud C. 300 baud D. 1200 baud ~~ E2E07 (B) What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal? A. 31 Hz B. 316 Hz C. 550 Hz D. 2 kHz ~~ E2E08 (B) Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files? A. Hellschreiber B. PACTOR C. RTTY D. AMTOR ~~ E2E09 (D) Which of the following HF digital modes uses variable-length coding for bandwidth efficiency? A. RTTY B. PACTOR C. MT63 D. PSK31 ~~ ***** E2E10 This question has been removed by the QPC E2E11 (D) What is the Baudot code? A. A code used to transmit data only in modern computer-based data systems using seven data bits B. A binary code consisting of eight data bits C. An alternate name for Morse code D. The International Telegraph Alphabet Number 2 (ITA2) which uses five data bits ~~ E2E12 (C) Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth? A. MFSK16 B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY C. PSK31 D. 300-baud packet ~~ SUBELEMENT E3 -- RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions -- 3 Groups] E3A Propagation and technique, part 1: Earth-Moon-Earth communications (EME); meteor scatter E3A01 (D) What is the approximate maximum separation along the surface of the Earth between two stations communicating by moonbounce? A. 500 miles if the moon is at perigee B. 2000 miles, if the moon is at apogee C. 5000 miles, if the moon is at perigee D. 12,000 miles, as long as both can "see" the moon ~~ E3A02 (B) What characterizes libration fading of an earth-moon-earth signal? A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal B. A fluttery irregular fading C. A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises D. The returning echo is several Hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal ~~ E3A03 (A) When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss? A. When the moon is at perigee B. When the moon is full C. When the moon is at apogee D. When the MUF is above 30 MHz ~~ E3A04 (D) edited A What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications? A. Equipment with very wide bandwidth B. Equipment with very low dynamic range C. Equipment with very low gain D. Equipment with very low noise figures ~~ E3A05 (A) What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting an EME contact? A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute C. Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes D. Five-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then receives for the following five minutes ~~ E3A06 (C) What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 432 MHz when attempting an EME contact? A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute C. Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes D. Five-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then receives for the following five minutes ~~ E3A07 (B) What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 2 meter band? A. 144.000 - 144.001 MHz B. 144.000 - 144.100 MHz C. 144.100 - 144.300 MHz D. 145.000 - 145.100 MHz ~~ E3A08 (D) What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 70 cm band? A. 430.000 - 430.150 MHz B. 430.100 - 431.100 MHz C. 431.100 - 431.200 MHz D. 432.000 - 432.100 MHz ~~ E3A09 (A) When a meteor strikes the Earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere? A. The E layer B. The F1 layer C. The F2 layer D. The D layer ~~ E3A10 (C) Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter communications? A. 1.8 - 1.9 MHz B. 10 - 14 MHz C. 28 - 148 MHz D. 220 - 450 MHz ~~ E3A11 (C) What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting a meteor-scatter contact? A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute C. 15-second sequences, where one station transmits for 15 seconds and then receives for the following 15 seconds D. 30-second sequences, where one station transmits for 30 seconds and then receives for the following 30 seconds ~~ E3B Propagation and technique, part 2: transequatorial; long path; gray line; multi- path propagation E3B01 (A) What is transequatorial propagation? A. Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator B. Propagation between any two points located on the magnetic equator C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator D. Propagation between two stations at the same latitude ~~ E3B02 (C) What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? A. 1000 miles B. 2500 miles C. 5000 miles D. 7500 miles ~~ E3B03 (C) What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation? A. Morning B. Noon C. Afternoon or early evening D. Late at night ~~ E3B04 (A) What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals? A. Long-path B. Sporadic-E C. Transequatorial D. Auroral ~~ E3B05 (C) Which amateur bands typically support long-path propagation? A. 160 to 40 meters B. 30 to 10 meters C. 160 to 10 meters D. 6 meters to 2 meters ~~ E3B06 (B) Which of the following amateur bands most frequently provides long-path propagation? A. 80 meters B. 20 meters C. 10 meters D. 6 meters ~~ E3B07 (D) Which of the following could account for hearing an echo on the received signal of a distant station? A. High D layer absorption B. Meteor scatter C. Transmit frequency is higher than the MUF D. Receipt of a signal by more than one path ~~ E3B08 (D) What type of propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness? A. Transequatorial B. Sporadic-E C. Long-path D. Gray-line ~~ E3B09 (A) [edited A] At what time of day is gray-line propagation most prevalent? A. At sunrise and sunset B. When the sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station C. When the sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations D. When the sun is directly above the location of the receiving station ~~ E3B10 (B) What is the cause of gray-line propagation? A. At midday, the sun, being directly overhead, superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves B. At twilight, solar absorption drops greatly, while atmospheric ionization is not weakened enough to reduce the MUF C. At darkness, solar absorption drops greatly, while atmospheric ionization remains steady D. At mid afternoon, the sun heats the ionosphere, increasing radio wave refraction and the MUF ~~ E3B11 (C) What communications are possible during gray-line propagation? A. Contacts up to 2,000 miles only on the 10-meter band B. Contacts up to 750 miles on the 6- and 2-meter bands C. Contacts up to 8,000 to 10,000 miles on three or four HF bands D. Contacts up to 12,000 to 15,000 miles on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands ~~ E3C Propagation and technique, part 3: Auroral propagation; selective fading; radio- path horizon; take-off angle over flat or sloping terrain; earth effects on propagation; less common propagation modes E3C01 (D) What effect does auroral activity have on radio communications? A. Signals experience long-delay echo B. FM communications are clearer C. CW signals have a clearer tone D. CW signals have a fluttery tone ~~ E3C02 (C) What is the cause of auroral activity? A. Reflections in the solar wind B. A low sunspot level C. The emission of charged particles from the sun D. Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes ~~ E3C03 (D) Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur? A. At F-region height B. In the equatorial band C. At D-region height D. At E-region height ~~ E3C04 (A) Which emission mode is best for auroral propagation? A. CW B. SSB C. FM D. RTTY ~~ E3C05 (B) What causes selective fading? A. Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station B. Phase differences in the received signal caused by different paths C. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere D. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations ~~ E3C06 (A) How much farther does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? A. By approximately 15% of the distance B. By approximately twice the distance C. By approximately one-half the distance D. By approximately four times the distance ~~ E3C07 (B) How does the radiation pattern of a 3-element, horizontally polarized beam antenna vary with height above ground? A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases with increasing height B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases with increasing height C. The horizontal beam width increases with height D. The horizontal beam width decreases with height ~~ E3C08 (B) What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region? A. Oblique-angle ray B. Pedersen ray C. Ordinary ray D. Heaviside ray ~~ E3C09 (C) What effect is usually responsible for propagating a VHF signal over 500 miles? A. D-region absorption B. Faraday rotation C. Tropospheric ducting D. Moonbounce ~~ E3C10 (B) How does the performance of a horizontally polarized antenna mounted on the side of a hill compare with the same antenna mounted on flat ground? A. The main lobe takeoff angle increases in the downhill direction B. The main lobe takeoff angle decreases in the downhill direction C. The horizontal beam width decreases in the downhill direction D. The horizontal beam width increases in the uphill direction ~~ E3C11 (B) From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation? A. South B. North C. East D. West ~~ E3C12 (B) As the frequency of a signal is increased, how does its ground wave propagation change? A. It increases B. It decreases C. It stays the same D. Radio waves don't propagate along the Earth's surface ~~ E3C13 (A) What type of polarization does most ground-wave propagation have? A. Vertical B. Horizontal C. Circular D. Elliptical ~~ E3C14 (D) Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? A. E-region skip B. D-region skip C. Auroral skip D. Radio waves may be bent ~~ SUBELEMENT E4 -- AMATEUR RADIO TECHNOLOGY AND MEASUREMENTS [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups] E4A Test equipment: analog and digital instruments; spectrum and network analyzers, antenna analyzers; oscilloscopes; testing transistors; RF measurements E4A01 (C) How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional oscilloscope? A. A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals B. A spectrum analyzer displays the peak amplitude of signals; an oscilloscope displays the average amplitude of signals C. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain D. A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies ~~ E4A02 (D) Which of the following parameters would a typical spectrum analyzer display on the horizontal axis? A. SWR B. Q C. Time D. Frequency ~~ E4A03 (A) Which of the following parameters would a typical spectrum analyzer display on the vertical axis? A. Amplitude B. Duration C. SWR D. Q ~~ E4A04 (A) Which of the following test instruments is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter? A. A spectrum analyzer B. A wattmeter C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer ~~ E4A05 (B) Which of the following test instruments is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission? A. A wattmeter B. A spectrum analyzer C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer ~~ E4A06 (D) Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer? A. The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer B. Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency C. The spectral output of a transmitter D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E4A07 (B) Which of the following is an advantage of using an antenna analyzer vs. a SWR bridge to measure antenna SWR? A. Antenna analyzers automatically tune your antenna for resonance B. Antenna analyzers typically do not need an external RF source C. Antenna analyzers typically display a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope D. All of these answers are correct ~~ E4A08 (D) Which of the following instruments would be best for measuring the SWR of a beam antenna? A. A spectrum analyzer B. A Q meter C. An ohmmeter D. An antenna analyzer ~~ E4A09 (C) Which of the following is most important when adjusting PSK31 transmitting levels? A. Power output B. PA current C. ALC level D. SWR ~~ E4A10 (D) Which of the following is a useful test for a functioning NPN transistor in an active circuit where the transistor should be biased "on" ? A. Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 6 to 7 ohms B. Measure base-to-emitter resistance with an ohmmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 ohms C. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately 6 to 7 volts D. Measure base-to-emitter voltage with a voltmeter; it should be approximately 0.6 to 0.7 volts ~~ E4A11 (A) Which of the following test instruments can be used to indicate pulse conditions in a digital logic circuit? A. A logic probe B. An ohmmeter C. An electroscope D. A Wheatstone bridge ~~ E4A12 (B) Which of the following procedures is an important precaution to follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output? A. Use high quality double shielded coaxial cables to reduce signal losses B. Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer C. Match the antenna to the load D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E4B Measurement technique and limitations: instrument accuracy and performance limitations; probes; techniques to minimize errors; measurement of "Q"; instrument calibration E4B01 (B) Which of the following is a characteristic of a good harmonic frequency marker? A. Wide tuning range B. Frequency stability C. Linear output amplifier D. All of the above ~~ E4B02 (B) Which of the following factors most affects the accuracy of a frequency counter? A. Input attenuator accuracy B. Time base accuracy C. Decade divider accuracy D. Temperature coefficient of the logic ~~ E4B03 (C) What is an advantage of using a bridge circuit to measure impedance? A. It provides an excellent match under all conditions B. It is relatively immune to drift in the signal generator source C. The measurement is based on obtaining a null in voltage, which can be done very precisely D. It can display results directly in Smith chart format ~~ E4B04 (C) If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 165.2 Hz B. 14.652 kHz C. 146.52 Hz D. 1.4652 MHz ~~ E4B05 (A) If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 14.652 Hz B. 0.1 MHz C. 1.4652 Hz D. 1.4652 kHz ~~ E4B06 (D) If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 146.52 Hz B. 10 Hz C. 146.52 kHz D. 1465.20 Hz ~~ E4B07 (D) How much power is being absorbed by the load when a directional power meter connected between a transmitter and a terminating load reads 100 watts forward power and 25 watts reflected power? A. 100 watts B. 125 watts C. 25 watts D. 75 watts ~~ E4B08 (A) Which of the following is good practice when using an oscilloscope probe? A. Keep the ground connection of the probe as short as possible B. Never use a high impedance probe to measure a low impedance circuit C. Never use a DC-coupled probe to measure an AC circuit D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E4B09 (C) Which of the following is a characteristic of a good DC voltmeter? A. High reluctance input B. Low reluctance input C. High impedance input D. Low impedance input ~~ E4B10 (D) What is indicated if the current reading on an RF ammeter placed in series with the antenna feedline of a transmitter increases as the transmitter is tuned to resonance? A. There is possibly a short to ground in the feedline B. The transmitter is not properly neutralized C. There is an impedance mismatch between the antenna and feedline D. There is more power going into the antenna ~~ E4B11 (B) Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter? A. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer B. Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer C. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter D. Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer ~~ E4B12 (D) How should a portable SWR analyzer be connected when measuring antenna resonance and feedpoint impedance? A. Loosely couple the analyzer near the antenna base B. Connect the analyzer via a high-impedance transformer to the antenna C. Connect the antenna and a dummy load to the analyzer D. Connect the antenna feed line directly to the analyzer's connector ~~ E4B13 (A) What is the significance of voltmeter sensitivity expressed in ohms per volt? A. The full scale reading of the voltmeter multiplied by its ohms per volt rating will provide the input impedance of the voltmeter B. When used as a galvanometer, the reading in volts multiplied by the ohms/volt will determine the power drawn by the device under test C. When used as an ohmmeter, the reading in ohms divided by the ohms/volt will determine the voltage applied to the circuit D. When used as an ammeter, the full scale reading in amps divided by ohms/volt will determine the size of shunt needed ~~ E4B14 (A) How is the compensation of an oscilloscope probe typically adjusted? A. A square wave is observed and the probe is adjusted until the horizontal portions of the displayed wave is as nearly flat as possible B. A high frequency sine wave is observed, and the probe is adjusted for maximum amplitude C. A frequency standard is observed, and the probe is adjusted until the deflection time is accurate D. A DC voltage standard is observed, and the probe is adjusted until the displayed voltage is accurate ~~ E4B15 (B) What happens if a dip-meter is too tightly coupled to a tuned circuit being checked? A. Harmonics are generated B. A less accurate reading results C. Cross modulation occurs D. Intermodulation distortion occurs ~~ E4B16 (B) Which of these factors limits the accuracy of a D'Arsonval-type meter? A. Its magnetic flux density B. Coil impedance C. Deflection rate D. Electromagnet current ~~ E4B17 (C) Which of the following can be used as a relative measurement of the Q for a series- tuned circuit? A. The inductance to capacitance ratio B. The frequency shift C. The bandwidth of the circuit's frequency response D. The resonant frequency of the circuit ~~ E4C Receiver performance characteristics, part 1: phase noise, capture effect, noise floor, image rejection, MDS, signal-to-noise-ratio; selectivity E4C01 (D) What is the effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver? A. It limits the receiver ability to receive strong signals B. It reduces the receiver sensitivity C. It decreases the receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range D. It can cause strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals ~~ E4C02 (C) Which of the following is the result of the capture effect in an FM receiver? A. All signals on a frequency are demodulated B. None of the signals could be heard C. The strongest signal received is the only demodulated signal D. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal ~~ E4C03 (C) What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal? A. Desensitization B. Cross-modulation interference C. Capture effect D. Frequency discrimination ~~ E4C04 (D) What is meant by the noise floor of a receiver? A. The minimum level of noise at the audio output when the RF gain is turned all the way down B. The equivalent phase noise power generated by the local oscillator C. The minimum level of noise that will overload the RF amplifier stage D. The equivalent input noise power when the antenna is replaced with a matched dummy load ~~ E4C05 (B) What does a value of -174 dBm/Hz represent with regard to the noise floor of a receiver? A. The minimum detectable signal as a function of receive frequency B. The theoretical noise at the input of a perfect receiver at room temperature C. The noise figure of a 1 Hz bandwidth receiver D. The galactic noise contribution to minimum detectable signal ~~ E4C06 (D) The thermal noise value of a receiver is -174 dBm/Hz. What is the theoretically best minimum detectable signal for a 400 Hz bandwidth receiver? A. 174 dBm B. -164 dBm C. -155 dBm D. -148 dBm ~~ E4C07 (B) What does the MDS of a receiver represent? A. The meter display sensitivity B. The minimum discernible signal C. The multiplex distortion stability D. The maximum detectable spectrum ~~ E4C08 (B) How might lowering the noise figure affect receiver performance? A. It would reduce the signal to noise ratio B. It would increase signal to noise ratio C. It would reduce bandwidth D. It would increase bandwidth ~~ E4C09 (D) Which of the following is most likely to be the limiting condition for sensitivity in a modern communications receiver operating at 14 MHz? A. The noise figure of the RF amplifier B. Mixer noise C. Conversion noise D. Atmospheric noise ~~ E4C10 (B) Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver? A. 100 Hz B. 300 Hz C. 6000 Hz D. 2400 Hz ~~ E4C11 (B) Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur single- sideband phone receiver? A. 1 kHz B. 2.4 kHz C. 4.2 kHz D. 4.8 kHz ~~ E4C12 (D) What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver? A. Output-offset overshoot B. Filter ringing C. Thermal-noise distortion D. Undesired signals may be heard ~~ E4C13 (C) How does a narrow band roofing filter affect receiver performance? A. It improves sensitivity by reducing front end noise B. It improves intelligibility by using low Q circuitry to reduce ringing C. It improves dynamic range by keeping strong signals near the receive frequency out of the IF stages D. All of these choice are correct ~~ E4C14 (D) Which of these choices is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur VHF FM receiver? A. 1 kHz B. 2.4 kHz C. 4.2 kHz D. 15 kHz ~~ E4C15 (D) What is the primary source of noise that can be heard from an HF-band receiver with an antenna connected? A. Detector noise B. Induction motor noise C. Receiver front-end noise D. Atmospheric noise ~~ E4D Receiver performance characteristics, part 2: blocking dynamic range, intermodulation and cross-modulation interference; 3rd order intercept; desensitization; preselection E4D01 (A) What is meant by the blocking dynamic range of a receiver? A. The difference in dB between the level of an incoming signal which will cause 1 dB of gain compression, and the level of the noise floor B. The minimum difference in dB between the levels of two FM signals which will cause one signal to block the other C. The difference in dB between the noise floor and the third order intercept point D. The minimum difference in dB between two signals which produce third order intermodulation products greater than the noise floor ~~ E4D02 (A) Which of the following describes two types of problems caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver? A. Cross modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals B. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning, and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband, should it be transmitted C. Cross modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker D. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals ~~ E4D03 (B) How can intermodulation interference between two repeaters occur? A. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in one or both transmitter final amplifiers B. When the repeaters are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both transmitter final amplifiers C. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead ~~ E4D04 (B) What is an effective way to reduce or eliminate intermodulation interference between two repeater transmitters operating in close proximity to one another? A. By installing a band-pass filter in the feed line between the transmitter and receiver B. By installing a properly terminated circulator at the output of the transmitter C. By using a Class C final amplifier D. By using a Class D final amplifier ~~ E4D05 (A) If a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz receives an intermodulation-product signal whenever a nearby transmitter transmits on 146.52 MHz, what are the two most likely frequencies for the other interfering signal? A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz B. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz C. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz D. 73.35 MHz and 239.40 MHz ~~ E4D06 (D) If the signals of two transmitters mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers, and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original signals are generated, what is this called? A. Amplifier desensitization B. Neutralization C. Adjacent channel interference D. Intermodulation interference ~~ E4D07 (D) Which of the following describes the most significant effect of an off-frequency signal when it is causing cross-modulation interference to a desired signal? A. A large increase in background noise B. A reduction in apparent signal strength C. The desired signal can no longer be heard D. The off-frequency unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal ~~ E4D08 (C) What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit? A. Too little gain B. Lack of neutralization C. Nonlinear circuits or devices D. Positive feedback ~~ E4D09 (C) What is the purpose of the preselector in a communications receiver? A. To store often-used frequencies B. To provide a range of AGC time constants C. To improve rejection of unwanted signals D. To allow selection of the optimum RF amplifier device ~~ E4D10 (C) What does a third-order intercept level of 40 dBm mean with respect to receiver performance? A. Signals less than 40 dBm will not generate audible third-order intermodulation products B. The receiver can tolerate signals up to 40 dB above the noise floor without producing third-order intermodulation products C. A pair of 40 dBm signals will theoretically generate the same output on the third order intermodulation frequency as on the input frequency D. A pair of 1 mW input signals will produce a third-order intermodulation product which is 40 dB stronger than the input signal ~~ E4D11 (A) Why are third-order intermodulation products within a receiver of particular interest compared to other products? A. The third-order product of two signals which are in the band is itself likely to be within the band B. The third-order intercept is much higher than other orders C. Third-order products are an indication of poor image rejection D. Third-order intermodulation produces three products for every input signal ~~ E4D12 (A) What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency? A. Desensitization B. Quieting C. Cross-modulation interference D. Squelch gain rollback ~~ E4D13 (B) Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization? A. Audio gain adjusted too low B. Strong adjacent-channel signals C. Audio bias adjusted too high D. Squelch gain adjusted too low ~~ E4D14 (A) Which of the following is a way to reduce the likelihood of receiver desensitization? A. Decrease the RF bandwidth of the receiver B. Raise the receiver IF frequency C. Increase the receiver front end gain D. Switch from fast AGC to slow AGC ~~ E4E Noise suppression: system noise; electrical appliance noise; line noise; locating noise sources; DSP noise reduction; noise blankers E4E01 (A) Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker? A. Ignition Noise B. Broadband "white" noise C. Heterodyne interference D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E4E02 (D) Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced with a DSP noise filter? A. Broadband "white" noise B. Ignition noise C. Power line noise D. All of these choices are correct ~~ E4E03 (B) Which of the following signals might a receiver noise blanker be able to remove from desired signals? A. Signals which are constant at all IF levels B. Signals which appear correlated across a wide bandwidth C. Signals which appear at one IF but not another D. Signals which have a sharply peaked frequency distribution ~~ E4E04 (D) How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed? A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead B. By connecting the radio to the battery by the longest possible path and installing a blocking capacitor in both leads C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low- pass filter in parallel with the field lead D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in line with the alternator leads ~~ E4E05 (B) How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed? A. By installing a ferrite bead on the AC line used to power the motor B. By installing a brute-force AC-line filter in series with the motor leads C. By installing a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads D. By using a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor ~~ E4E06 (B) What is a major cause of atmospheric static? A. Solar radio frequency emissions B. Thunderstorms C. Geomagnetic storms D. Meteor showers ~~ E4E07 (C) How can you determine if line-noise interference is being generated within your home? A. By checking the power-line voltage with a time-domain reflectometer B. By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope C. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery- operated radio D. By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer ~~ E4E08 (A) What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio transmitter? A. A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter B. An electrical-sparking signal C. A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency D. Harmonics of the AC power line frequency ~~ E4E09 (C) What undesirable effect can occur when using an IF type noise blanker? A. Received audio in the speech range might have an echo effect B. The audio frequency bandwidth of the received signal might be compressed C. Nearby signals may appear to be excessively wide even if they meet emission standards D. FM signals can no longer be demodulated ~~ E4E10 (D) What is a common characteristic of interference caused by a "touch controlled" electrical device? A. The interfering signal sounds like AC hum on an AM receiver or a carrier modulated by 60 Hz FM on a SSB or CW receiver B. The interfering signal may drift slowly across the HF spectrum C. The interfering signal can be several kHz in width and usually repeats at regular intervals across a HF band D. All of these answers are correct ~~ E4E11 (B) What is the most likely cause if you are hearing combinations of local AM broadcast signals inside one or more of the MF or HF ham bands? A. The broadcast station is transmitting an over-modulated signal B. Nearby corroded metal joints are mixing and re-radiating the BC signals C. You are receiving sky-wave signals from a distant station D. Your station receiver IF amplifier stage is defective ~~ E4E12 (A) What is one disadvantage of using some automatic DSP notch-filters when attempting to copy CW signals? A. The DSP filter can remove the desired signal at the same time as it removes interfering signals B. Any nearby signal passing through the DSP system will always overwhelm the desired signal C. Received CW signals will appear to be modulated at the DSP clock frequency D. Ringing in the DSP filter will completely remove the spaces between the CW characters ~~ E4E13 (D) What might be the cause of a loud "roaring" or "buzzing" AC line type of interference that comes and goes at intervals? A. Arcing contacts in a thermostatically controlled device B. A defective doorbell or doorbell transformer inside a nearby residence C. A malfunctioning illuminated advertising display D. All of these answers are correct ~~ E4E14 (C) What is one type of electrical interference that might be caused by the operation of a nearby personal computer? A. A loud AC hum in the audio output of your station receiver B. A clicking noise at intervals of a few seconds C. The appearance of unstable modulated or unmodulated signals at specific frequencies D. A whining type noise that continually pulses off and on ~~ SUBELEMENT E5 -- ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [4 Exam Questions -- 4 Groups] E5A Resonance and Q: characteristics of resonant circuits: series and parallel resonance; Q; half-power bandwidth; phase relationships in reactive circuits E5A01 (A) What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them? A. Resonance B. Capacitance C. Conductance D. Resistance ~~ E5A02 (C) What is resonance in an electrical circuit? A. The highest frequency that will pass current B. The lowest frequency that will pass current C. The frequency at which the capacitive reactance equals the inductive reactance D. The frequency at which the reactive impedance equals the resistive impedance ~~ E5A03 (D) What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance B. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance ~~ E5A04 (A) What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance? A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance B. Approximately equal to inductive reactance C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance D. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance ~~ E5A05 (B) What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series R-L-C circuit as the frequency goes through resonance? A. Minimum B. Maximum C. R/L D. L/R ~~ E5A06 (B) (Was E5A08; edited] What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel L-C circuit at resonance? A. It is at a minimum B. It is at a maximum C. It equals 1 divided by the quantity [ 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by the square root of ( inductance "L" multiplied by capacitance "C" ) ] D. It equals 2 multiplied by Pi, multiplied by frequency "F", multiplied by inductance "L" ~~ E5A07 (A) What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. Minimum B. Maximum C. R/L D. L/R ~~ E5A08 (C) What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a series resonant circuit? A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees C. The voltage and current are in phase D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase ~~ E5A09 (C) What is the phase relationship between the current through and the voltage across a parallel resonant circuit? A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees C. The voltage and current are in phase D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase ~~ E5A10 (A) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95? A. 18.9 kHz B. 1.89 kHz C. 94.5 kHz D. 9.45 kHz ~~ E5A11 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? A. 157.8 Hz B. 315.6 Hz C. 47.3 kHz D. 23.67 kHz ~~ E5A12 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? A. 436.6 kHz B. 218.3 kHz C. 31.4 kHz D. 15.7 kHz ~~ E5A13 (B) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187? A. 38.1 kHz B. 76.2 kHz C. 1.332 kHz D. 2.665 kHz ~~ E5A14 (C) What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 22 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? A. 44.72 MHz B. 22.36 MHz C. 3.56 MHz D. 1.78 MHz ~~ E5A15 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 56 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads? A. 3.76 MHz B. 1.78 MHz C. 11.18 MHz D. 22.36 MHz ~~ E5A16 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 33 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? A. 23.5 MHz B. 23.5 kHz C. 7.12 kHz D. 7.12 MHz ~~ E5A17 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a parallel RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? A. 10.1 MHz B. 63.2 MHz C. 10.1 kHz D. 63.2 kHz ~~ E5B Time constants and phase relationships: R/L/C time constants: definition; time constants in RL and RC circuits; phase angle between voltage and current; phase angles of series and parallel circuits E5B01(B) What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage? A. An exponential rate of one B. One time constant C. One exponential period D. A time factor of one ~~ E5B02 (D) What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial value of stored charge? A. One discharge period B. An exponential discharge rate of one C. A discharge factor of one D. One time constant ~~ E5B03 (D) The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants? A. 86.5% B. 63.2% C. 36.8% D. 13.5% ~~ E5B04 (D) What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel? A. 55 seconds B. 110 seconds C. 440 seconds D. 220 seconds ~~ E5B05 (A) How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 0.02 seconds B. 0.04 seconds C. 20 seconds D. 40 seconds ~~ E5B06 (C) How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 4.50 seconds B. 9 seconds C. 450 seconds D. 900 seconds ~~ E5B07 (C) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms? A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current ~~ E5B08 (A) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms? A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current ~~ E5B09 (D) was E5D06 What is the relationship between the current through and the voltage across a capacitor? A. Voltage and current are in phase B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase C. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees ~~ E5B10 (A) was E5D07 What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor? A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees C. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase D. Voltage and current are in phase ~~ E5B11 (B) was E5D08 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms? A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current ~~ E5B12 (C) was E5D10 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 75 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 50 ohms? A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current ~~ E5B13 (D) was E5D11 What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series RLC circuit if XC is 250 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 500 ohms? A. 81.47 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 81.47 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14.04 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 14.04 degrees with the voltage leading the current ~~ E5C Impedance plots and coordinate systems: plotting impedances in polar coordinates; rectangular coordinates E5C01 (B) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm- reactance inductor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? A. 121 ohms at an angle of 35 degrees B. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees C. 161 ohms at an angle of 55 degrees D. 181 ohms at an angle of 65 degrees ~~ E5C02 (D) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm- reactance inductor, a 100-ohm-reactance capacitor, and a 100-ohm resistor, all connected in series? A. 100 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees B. 10 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees C. 10 ohms at an angle of 90 degrees D. 100 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees ~~ E5C03 (A) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 300-ohm- reactance capacitor, a 600-ohm-reactance inductor, and a 400-ohm resistor, all connected in series? A. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees B. 900 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees C. 400 ohms at an angle of 0 degrees D. 1300 ohms at an angle of 180 degrees ~~ E5C04 (D) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm- reactance capacitor in series with a 300-ohm resistor? A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees ~~ E5C05 (A) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 400-ohm- reactance inductor in parallel with a 300-ohm resistor? A. 240 ohms at an angle of 36.9 degrees B. 240 ohms at an angle of -36.9 degrees C. 500 ohms at an angle of 53.1 degrees D. 500 ohms at an angle of -53.1 degrees ~~ E5C06 (D) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network consisting of a 100-ohm- reactance capacitor in series with a 100-ohm resistor? A. 121 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees B. 191 ohms at an angle of -85 degrees C. 161 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees D. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees ~~ E5C07 (C) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100-ohm- reactance capacitor in parallel with a 100-ohm resistor? A. 31 ohms at an angle of -15 degrees B. 51 ohms at an angle of -25 degrees C. 71 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees D. 91 ohms at an angle of -65 degrees ~~ E5C08 (B) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 300-ohm- reactance inductor in series with a 400-ohm resistor? A. 400 ohms at an angle of 27 degrees B. 500 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees C. 500 ohms at an angle of 47 degrees D. 700 ohms at an angle of 57 degrees ~~ E5C09 (A) When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the horizontal axis represent? A. The voltage or current associated with the resistive component B. The voltage or current associated with the reactive component C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components ~~ E5C10 (B) When using rectangular coordinates to graph the impedance of a circuit, what does the vertical axis represent? A. The voltage or current associated with the resistive component B. The voltage or current associated with the reactive component C. The sum of the reactive and resistive components D. The difference between the resistive and reactive components ~~ E5C11 (C) What do the two numbers represent that are used to define a point on a graph using rectangular coordinates? A. The magnitude and phase of the point B. The sine and cosine values C. The coordinate values along the horizontal and vertical axes D. The tangent and cotangent values ~~ E5C12 (D) If you plot the impedance of a circuit using the rectangular coordinate system and find the impedance point falls on the right side of the graph on the horizontal line, what do you know about the circuit? A. It has to be a direct current circuit B. It contains resistance and capacitive reactance C. It contains resistance and inductive reactance D. It is equivalent to a pure resistance ~~ E5C13 (D) What coordinate system is often used to display the resistive, inductive, and/or capacitive reactance components of an impedance? A. Maidenhead grid B. Faraday grid C. Elliptical coordinates D. Rectangular coordinates ~~ E5C14 (D) What coordinate system is often used to display the phase angle of a circuit containing resistance, inductive and/or capacitive reactance? A. Maidenhead grid B. Faraday grid C. Elliptical coordinates D. Polar coordinates ~~ E5C15 (A) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit of 100 -j100 ohms impedance? A. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees B. 100 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees C. 100 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees ~~ E5C16 (B) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees? A. 5.03 x 10 -E05 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees B. 141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees C. 19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees D. 141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees ~~ E5C17 (C) In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 5 millisiemens at -30 degrees? A. 173 - j100 ohms B. 200 + j100 ohms C. 173 + j100 ohms D. 200 - j100 ohms ~~ E5C18 (B) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a resistance of 4 ohms, an inductive reactance of 4 ohms, and a capacitive reactance of 1 ohm? A. 6.4 ohms at an angle of 53 degrees B. 5 ohms at an angle of 37 degrees C. 5 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees D. 10 ohms at an angle of -51 degrees ~~ E5C19 (B) Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents that impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 400 ohm resistor and a 38 picofarad capacitor at 14 MHz? A. Point 2 B. Point 4 C. Point 5 D. Point 6 ~~ E5C20 (B) Which point in Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and an 18 microhenry inductor at 3.505 MHz? A. Point 1 B. Point 3 C. Point 7 D. Point 8 ~~ E5C21 (A) Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300 ohm resistor and a 19 picofarad capacitor at 21.200 MHz? A. Point 1 B. Point 3 C. Point 7 D. Point 8 ~~ E5C22 (A) In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10- microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz? A. 40 + j31,400 B. 40 - j31,400 C. 31,400 + j40 D. 31,400 - j40 ~~ E5C23 (D) Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and an 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz? A. Point 1 B. Point 3 C. Point 5 D. Point 8 ~~ E5D AC and RF energy in real circuits: skin effect; electrostatic and electromagnetic fields; reactive power; power factor; coordinate systems E5D01 (A) What is the result of skin effect? A. As frequency increases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface B. As frequency decreases, RF current flows in a thinner layer of the conductor, closer to the surface C. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor increase the impedance D. Thermal effects on the surface of the conductor decrease the impedance ~~ E5D02 (C) Why is the resistance of a conductor different for RF currents than for direct currents? A. Because the insulation conducts current at high frequencies B. Because of the Heisenburg Effect C. Because of skin effect D. Because conductors are non-linear devices ~~ E5D03 (C) What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field? A. A battery B. A transformer C. A capacitor D. An inductor ~~ E5D04 (B) What unit measures electrical energy stored in an electrostatic field? A. Coulomb B. Joule C. Watt D. Volt ~~ E5D05 (B) What is a magnetic field? A. Electric current through the space around a permanent magnet B. The region surrounding a magnet through which a magnetic force acts C. The space between the plates of a charged capacitor, through which a magnetic force acts D. The force that drives current through a resistor ~~ E5D06 (D) In what direction is the magnetic field oriented about a conductor in relation to the direction of electron flow? A. In the same direction as the current B. In a direction opposite to the current C. In all directions; omnidirectional D. In a direction determined by the left-hand rule ~~ E5D07 (D) What determines the strength of a magnetic field around a conductor? A. The resistance divided by the current B. The ratio of the current to the resistance C. The diameter of the conductor D. The amount of current ~~ E5D08 (B) What is the term for energy that is stored in an electromagnetic or electrostatic field? A. Amperes-joules B. Potential energy C. Joules-coulombs D. Kinetic energy ~~ E5D09 (D) What is the term for an out-of-phase, nonproductive power associated with inductors and capacitors? A. Effective power B. True power C. Peak envelope power D. Reactive power ~~ E5D10 (B) In a circuit that has both inductors and capacitors, what happens to reactive power? A. It is dissipated as heat in the circuit B. It is repeatedly exchanged between the associated magnetic and electric fields, but is not dissipated C. It is dissipated as kinetic energy in the circuit D. It is dissipated in the formation of inductive and capacitive fields ~~ E5D11 (A) How can the true power be determined in an AC circuit where the voltage and current are out of phase? A. By multiplying the apparent power times the power factor B. By dividing the reactive power by the power factor C. By dividing the apparent power by the power factor D. By multiplying the reactive power times the power factor ~~ E5D12 (C) What is the power factor of an R-L circuit having a 60 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 1.414 B. 0.866 C. 0.5 D. 1.73 ~~ E5D13 (B) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.2 if the input is 100-V AC at 4 amperes? A. 400 watts B. 80 watts C. 2000 watts D. 50 watts ~~ E5D14 (B) How much power is consumed in a circuit consisting of a 100 ohm resistor in series with a 100 ohm inductive reactance drawing 1 ampere? A. 70.7 Watts B. 100 Watts C. 141.4 Watts D. 200 Watts ~~ E5D15 (A) What is reactive power? A. Wattless, nonproductive power B. Power consumed in wire resistance in an inductor C. Power lost because of capacitor leakage D. Power consumed in circuit Q ~~ E5D16 (D) What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 45 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 0.866 B. 1.0 C. 0.5 D. 0.707 ~~ E5D17 (C) was [E5H14] What is the power factor of an RL circuit having a 30 degree phase angle between the voltage and the current? A. 1.73 B. 0.5 C. 0.866 D. 0.577 ~~ E5D18 (D) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.6 if the input is 200V AC at 5 amperes? A. 200 watts B. 1000 watts C. 1600 watts D. 600 watts ~~ E5D19 (B) How many watts are consumed in a circuit having a power factor of 0.71 if the apparent power is 500 watts? A. 704 W B. 355 W C. 252 W D. 1.42 mW ~~ SUBELEMENT E6 -- CIRCUIT COMPONENTS [6 Exam Questions -- 6 Groups] E6A Semiconductor materials and devices: semiconductor materials (germanium, silicon, P-type, N-type); transistor types: NPN, PNP, junction, power; field-effect transistors: enhancement mode; depletion mode; MOS; CMOS; N-channel; P-channel E6A01 (C) In what application is gallium arsenide used as a semiconductor material in preference to germanium or silicon? A. In high-current rectifier circuits B. In high-power audio circuits C. At microwave frequencies D. At very low frequency RF circuits ~~ E6A02 (A) What type of semiconductor material contains more free electrons than pure germanium or silicon crystals? A. N-type B. P-type C. Bipolar D. Insulated gate ~~ E6A03 (C) What are the majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor material? A. Free neutrons B. Free protons C. Holes D. Free electrons ~~ E6A04 (C) What is the name given to an impurity atom that adds holes to a semiconductor crystal structure? A. Insulator impurity B. N-type impurity C. Acceptor impurity D. Donor impurity ~~ E6A05 (C) What is the alpha of a bipolar junction transistor? A. The change of collector current with respect to base current B. The change of base current with respect to collector current C. The change of collector current with respect to emitter current D. The change of collector current with respect to gate current ~~ E6A06 (B) What is meant by the beta of a bipolar junction transistor? A. The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1 B. The change in collector current with respect to base current C. The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction D. The switching speed of the transistor ~~ E6A07 (A) In Figure E6-1, what is the schematic symbol for a PNP transistor? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 ~~ E6A08 (D) What term indicates the frequency at which a transistor grounded base current gain has decreased to 0.7 of the gain obtainable at 1 kHz? A. Corner frequency B. Alpha rejection frequency C. Beta cutoff frequency D. Alpha cutoff frequency ~~ E6A09 (A) What is a depletion-mode FET? A. An FET that exhibits a current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied B. An FET that has no current flow between source and drain when no gate voltage is applied C. An FET without a channel so no current flows with zero gate voltage D. An FET without a channel so maximum gate current flows ~~ E6A10 (B) {Was E6A09] In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for an N-channel dual-gate MOSFET? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 ~~ E6A11 (A) In Figure E6-2, what is the schematic symbol for a P-channel junction FET? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 6 ~~ E6A12 (D) Why do many MOSFET devices have built-in gate-protective Zener diodes? A. To provide a voltage reference for the correct amount of reverse-bias gate voltage B. To protect the substrate from excessive voltages C. To keep the gate voltage within specifications and prev
