Element 4 Extra Class Question Pool - This Pool Takes Effect July 1, 2002 * To obtain a copy of the graphics references that are to be used with this question pool, see the downloadable PDF graphic on our web page directly below this pool, or send a business sized SASE to the ARRL/VEC, 225 Main St, Newington CT 06111. Request the "2002 Extra class Question Pool Graphics". For $1.50 the ARRL VEC will supply a hardcopy of this pool without receiving an SASE. * The questions contained within this pool must be used in all Extra class examinations beginning July 1, 2002, and is intended to be used up through June 30, 2006. * The correct answer position A,B,C,D appears in parenthesis following each question number [eg, in E1A01 (B), position B contains the correct answer text]. * Questions or comments regarding this question pool can be directed to the ARRL VEC at vec@arrl.org Question Pool ELEMENT 4 - EXTRA CLASS as released by the Question Pool Committee of the National Conference of Volunteer Examiner Coordinators November 30, 2001 SUBELEMENT E1 -- COMMISSION'S RULES [7 Exam Questions -- 7 Groups] E1A Operating standards: frequency privileges for Extra class amateurs; emission standards; message forwarding; frequency sharing between ITU Regions; FCC modification of station license; 30-meter band sharing; stations aboard ships or aircraft; telemetry; telecommand of an amateur station; authorized telecommand transmissions E1A01 (B) [97.301(b)] What exclusive frequency privileges in the 80-meter band are authorized to Amateur Extra Class control operators? A. 3525-3775 kHz B. 3500-3525 kHz C. 3700-3750 kHz D. 3500-3550 kHz E1A02 (C) [97.301(b)] What exclusive frequency privileges in the 75-meter band are authorized to Amateur Extra class control operators? A. 3775-3800 kHz B. 3800-3850 kHz C. 3750-3775 kHz D. 3800-3825 kHz E1A03 (A) [97.301(b)] What exclusive frequency privileges in the 40-meter band are authorized to Amateur Extra class control operators? A. 7000-7025 kHz B. 7000-7050 kHz C. 7025-7050 kHz D. 7100-7150 kHz E1A04 (D) [97.301(b)] What exclusive frequency privileges in the 20-meter band are authorized to Amateur Extra Class control operators? A. 14.100-14.175 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz B. 14.000-14.125 MHz and 14.250-14.300 MHz C. 14.025-14.050 MHz and 14.100-14.150 MHz D. 14.000-14.025 MHz and 14.150-14.175 MHz E1A05 (C) [97.301(b)] What exclusive frequency privileges in the 15-meter band are authorized to Amateur Extra Class control operators? A. 21.000-21.200 MHz and 21.250-21.270 MHz B. 21.050-21.100 MHz and 21.150-21.175 MHz C. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.200-21.225 MHz D. 21.000-21.025 MHz and 21.250-21.275 MHz E1A06 (A) [97.301(b)] Which frequency bands contain at least one segment authorized to only control operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license? A. 80, 75, 40, 20 and 15 meters B. 80, 40, and 20 meters C. 75, 40, 30 and 10 meters D. 160, 80, 40 and 20 meters E1A07 (B) [97.301(b)] Within the 20-meter band, what is the amount of spectrum authorized to only control operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license? A. 25 kHz B. 50 kHz C. None D. 25 MHz E1A08 (A) [97.301(b)] Which frequency bands contain two segments authorized to only control operators holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license, CEPT radio-amateur Class 1 license or Class 1 IARP? A. 80/75, 20 and 15 meters B. 40, 30 and 20 meters C. 30, 20 and 17 meters D. 30, 20 and 12 meters E1A09 (D) [97.307(c)] What must an amateur station licensee do if a spurious emission from the station causes harmful interference to the reception of another radio station? A. Pay a fine each time it happens B. Submit a written explanation to the FCC C. Forfeit the station license if it happens more than once D. Eliminate or reduce the interference E1A10 (A) [97.307(d)] What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission from a transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting at a mean power of 5 watts or greater on an amateur service HF band? A. The lesser of 50 milliwatts or 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission B. 60 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission C. 10 microwatts D. The lesser of 25 microwatts or 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission E1A11 (A) [97.307(d)] What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission from a transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting at a mean power less than 5 watts on an amateur service HF band? A. 30 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission B. 60 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission C. 10 microwatts D. 25 microwatts E1A12 (A) [97.307(e)] What is the maximum mean power permitted to any spurious emission from a transmitter or external RF power amplifier transmitting at a mean power greater than 25 watts on an amateur service VHF band? A. 60 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission B. 40 dB below the below the mean power of fundamental emission C. 10 microwatts D. 25 microwatts E1A13 (A) [97.307(e)] What is the maximum mean power permitted for any spurious emission from a transmitter having a mean power of 25 W or less on an amateur service VHF band? A. The lesser of 25 microwatts or 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission B. The lesser of 50 microwatts or 40 dB below the mean power of the fundamental emission C. 20 microwatts D. 50 microwatts E1A14 (B) [97.219(b), (d)] If a packet bulletin board station in a message forwarding system inadvertently forwards a message that is in violation of FCC rules, who is accountable for the rules violation? A. The control operator of the packet bulletin board station B. The control operator of the originating station and conditionally the first forwarding station C. The control operators of all the stations in the system D. The control operators of all the stations in the system not authenticating the source from which they accept communications E1A15 (A) [97.219(c)] If your packet bulletin board station inadvertently forwards a communication that violates FCC rules, what is the first action you should take? A. Discontinue forwarding the communication as soon as you become aware of it B. Notify the originating station that the communication does not comply with FCC rules C. Notify the nearest FCC Enforcement Bureau office D. Discontinue forwarding all messages E1A16 (A) [97.303] For each ITU Region, how is each frequency band allocated internationally to the amateur service designated? A. Primary service or secondary service B. Primary service C. Secondary service D. Co-secondary service E1A17 (D) [97.27] Why might the FCC modify an amateur station license? A. To relieve crowding in certain bands B. To better prepare for a time of national emergency C. To enforce a radio quiet zone within one mile of an airport D. To promote the public interest, convenience and necessity E1A18 (A) [97.303(d)] What are the sharing requirements for an amateur station transmitting in the 30- meter band? A. It must not cause harmful interference to stations in the fixed service authorized by other nations B. There are no sharing requirements C. Stations in the fixed service authorized by other nations must not cause harmful interference to amateur stations in the same country D. Stations in the fixed service authorized by other nations must not cause harmful interference to amateur stations in another country E1A19 (A) [97.11(a)] If an amateur station is installed on board a ship and is separate from the ship radio installation, what condition must be met before the station may transmit? A. Its operation must be approved by the master of the ship B. Its antenna must be separate from the main ship antennas, transmitting only when the main radios are not in use C. It must have a power supply that is completely independent of the main ship power supply D. Its operator must have an FCC Marine endorsement on his or her amateur operator license E1A20 (A) [97.3(a)(45)] What is the definition of the term telemetry? A. A one-way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument B. A two-way interactive transmission C. A two-way single channel transmission of data D. A one-way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a device at a distance E1A21 (D) [97.3(a)(43)] What is the definition of the term telecommand? A. A one way transmission of measurements at a distance from the measuring instrument B. A two-way interactive transmission C. A two-way single channel transmission of data D. A one-way transmission to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a device at a distance E1A22 (D) [97.211(b)] When may an amateur station transmit special codes intended to obscure the meaning of messages? A. Never under any circumstances B. Only when a Special Temporary Authority has been obtained from the FCC C. Only when an Amateur Extra Class operator is the station control operator D. When sending telecommand messages to a station in space operation E1B Station restrictions: restrictions on station locations; restricted operation; teacher as control operator; station antenna structures; definition and operation of remote control and automatic control; control link E1B01 (A) [97.13(a)] Which of the following factors might restrict the physical location of an amateur station apparatus or antenna structure? A. The land may have environmental importance; or it is significant in American history, architecture or culture B. The location's political or societal importance C. The location's geographical or horticultural importance D. The location's international importance, requiring consultation with one or more foreign governments before installation E1B02 (A) [97.13(b)] Outside of what distance from an FCC monitoring facility may an amateur station be located without concern for protecting the facility from harmful interference? A. 1 mile B. 3 miles C. 10 miles D. 30 miles E1B03 (C) [97.13(a)] What must be done before an amateur station is placed within an officially designated wilderness area or wildlife preserve, or an area listed in the National Register of Historical Places? A. A proposal must be submitted to the National Park Service B. A letter of intent must be filed with the National Audubon Society C. An Environmental Assessment must be submitted to the FCC D. A form FSD-15 must be submitted to the Department of the Interior E1B04 (D) [97.121(a )] If an amateur station causes interference to the reception of a domestic broadcast station with a receiver of good engineering design, on what frequencies may the operation of the amateur station be restricted? A. On the frequency used by the domestic broadcast station B. On all frequencies below 30 MHz C. On all frequencies above 30 MHz D. On the frequency or frequencies used when the interference occurs E1B05 (C) [97.113(c)] When may an amateur operator accept compensation for serving as the control operator of an amateur station used in a classroom? A. Only when the amateur operator does not accept pay during periods of time when the amateur station is used B. Only when the classroom is in a correctional institution C. Only when the amateur operator is paid as an incident of a teaching position during periods of time when the station is used by that teacher as a part of classroom instruction at an educational institution D. Only when the station is restricted to making contacts with similar stations at other educational institutions E1B06 (B) [97.113(c)] Who may accept compensation for serving as a control operator in a classroom at an educational institution? A. Any licensed amateur operator B. Only an amateur operator accepting such pay as an incident of a teaching position during times when the station is used by that teacher as a part of classroom instruction C. Only teachers at correctional institutions D. Only students at educational or correctional institutions E1B07 (B)[97.15(a) If an amateur antenna structure is located in a valley or canyon, what height restrictions apply? A. The structure must not extend more than 200 feet above average height of terrain B. The structure must be no higher than 200 feet above the ground level at its site C. There are no height restrictions since the structure would not be a hazard to aircraft in a valley or canyon D. The structure must not extend more than 200 feet above the top of the valley or canyon E1B08 (D) [97.15b] What limits must local authorities observe when legislating height and dimension restrictions for an amateur station antenna structure? A. FAA regulations specify a minimum height for amateur antenna structures located near airports B. FCC regulations specify a 200 foot minimum height for amateur antenna structures C. State and local restrictions of amateur antenna structures are not allowed D. Such regulation must reasonably accommodate amateur service communications and must constitute the minimum practicable regulation to accomplish the state or local authorities legitimate purpose E1B09 (A) [97.15a] If you are installing an amateur radio station antenna at a site within 5 miles from a public use airport, what additional rules apply? A. You must evaluate the height of your antenna based on the FCC Part 17 regulations B. No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 200 feet in height C. You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the Environmental Protection Agency before construction begins D. You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority E1B10 (D) [97.3a38] What is meant by a remotely controlled station? A. A station operated away from its regular home location B. Control of a station from a point located other than at the station transmitter C. A station operating under automatic control D. A station controlled indirectly through a control link E1B11 (A) [97.109(d), 201(d), 97.203(d), 97.205(d)] Which of the following amateur stations may not be operated under automatic control? A. Remote control of model aircraft B. Beacon station C. Auxiliary station D. Repeater station E1B12 (A) [97.3(a)(6), 97.109(d)] What is meant by automatic control of a station? A. The use of devices and procedures for control so that the control operator does not have to be present at the control point B. A station operating with its output power controlled automatically C. Remotely controlling a station such that a control operator does not have to be present at the control point at all times D. The use of a control link between a control point and a locally controlled station E1B13 (B) [97.3(a)(6), 97.109(d)] How do the control operator responsibilities of a station under automatic control differ from one under local control? A. Under local control there is no control operator B. Under automatic control the control operator is not required to be present at the control point C. Under automatic control there is no control operator D. Under local control a control operator is not required to be present at a control point E1B14 (C) [97.3(a)(38)] What is a control link? A. A device that automatically controls an unattended station B. An automatically operated link between two stations C. The means of control between a control point and a remotely controlled station D. A device that limits the time of a station's transmission E1B15 (D) [97.3(a)(38)] What is the term for apparatus to effect remote control between the control point and a remotely controlled station? A. A tone link B. A wire control C. A remote control D. A control link E1C Reciprocal operating: reciprocal operating authority; purpose of reciprocal agreement rules; alien control operator privileges; identification (Note: This includes CEPT and IARP) E1C01 (A) [97.5(c),(d), (e), 97.107] What is an FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation? A. An FCC authorization to the holder of an amateur license issued by certain foreign governments to operate an amateur station in the US B. An FCC permit to allow a US licensed amateur to operate in a foreign nation except Canada C. An FCC permit allowing a foreign licensed amateur to handle third-party traffic between the US and the amateur's own nation D. An FCC agreement with another country allowing the passing of third-party traffic between amateurs of the two nations E1C02 (B) [97.107] Who is authorized for alien reciprocal operation in places where the FCC regulates the amateur service? A. Anyone holding a valid amateur service license issued by a foreign government B. Any non-US citizen holding an amateur service license issued by their government with which the US has a reciprocal operating arrangement C. Anyone holding a valid amateur service license issued by a foreign government with which the US has a reciprocal operating arrangement D. Any non-US citizen holding a valid amateur license issued by a foreign government, as long as the person is a citizen of that country E1C03 (C) [97.107] What are the frequency privileges authorized for alien reciprocal operation? A. Those authorized to a holder of the equivalent US amateur operator license B. Those that the alien has in his or her own country C. Those authorized to the alien by his country of citizenship, but not to exceed those authorized to Amateur Extra Class operators D. Those approved by the International Amateur Radio Union E1C04 (D) [97.119(g)] What indicator must a Canadian amateur station include with the assigned call sign in the station identification announcement when operating in the US? A. No indicator is required B. The grid-square locator number for the location of the station must be included after the call sign C. The permit number and the call-letter district number of the station location must be included before the Canadian-assigned call sign D. The letter-numeral indicating the station location after the Canadian call sign and the closest city and state once during the communication E1C05 (A) [97.107] When may a US citizen holding a foreign amateur service license be authorized for alien reciprocal operation in places where the FCC regulates the amateur service? A. Never; US citizens are not eligible for alien reciprocal operation B. When the US citizen also holds citizenship in the foreign country C. When the US citizen was born in the foreign country D. When the US citizen has no current FCC amateur service license E1C06 (A) [97.107] Which of the following would disqualify a foreign amateur operator from being authorized for alien reciprocal operation in places where the FCC regulates the amateur service? A. Not being a citizen of the country that issued the amateur service license B. Having citizenship in their own country but not US citizenship C. Holding only an amateur license issued by their own country but holding no FCC amateur service license grant D. Holding an amateur service license issued by their own country authorizing privileges beyond Amateur Extra Class operator privileges E1C07 (B) [97.107(a)] What special document is required before a Canadian citizen holding a Canadian amateur service license may reciprocal operate in the US? A. A written FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation B. No special document is required C. The citizen must have an FCC-issued validation of their Canadian license D. The citizen must have an FCC-issued Certificate of US License Grant without Examination to operate for a period longer than 10 days E1C08 (C) [97.107(b)] What operating privileges does a properly licensed alien amateur have in the US, if the US and the alien amateur's home country have a multilateral or bilateral reciprocal operating agreement? A. All privileges of their home license B. All privileges of an Amateur Extra Class operator license C. Those authorized by their home license, not to exceed the operating privileges of an Amateur Extra Class operator license D. Those granted by the home license that match US privileges authorized to amateur operators in ITU Region 1 E1C09 (D) [97.5(c)] From which locations may a licensed alien amateur operator be the control operator of an amateur station? A. Only locations within the boundaries of the 50 United States B. Only locations listed as the primary station location on an FCC amateur service license C. Only locations on ground within the US and its territories; no shipboard or aeronautical mobile operation is permitted D. Any location where the amateur service is regulated by the FCC E1C10 (A) [97.5(d)] Which of the following operating arrangements allow an FCC licensed US citizen to operate in many European countries and alien amateurs from many European countries to operate in the US? A. CEPT agreement B. IARP agreement C. ITU agreement D. All of these choices are correct E1C11 (B) [97.5(e)] Which of the following multilateral or bilateral operating arrangements allow an FCC licensed US citizen and many Central and South American amateur operators to operate in each other's countries? A. CEPT agreement B. IARP agreement C. ITU agreement D. All of these choices are correct E1C12 (D) [97.119(g)] What additional station identification, in addition to his or her own call sign, does an alien operator supply when operating in the US under an FCC authorization for alien reciprocal operation? A. No additional operation is required B. The gird-square locator closest to his or her present location is included before the call C. The serial number of the permit and the call-letter district number of the station location is included before the call D. The letter-numeral indicating the station location in the US included before their call and the closest city and state given once during the communication E1D Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES): definition; purpose; station registration; station license required; control operator requirements; control operator privileges; frequencies available; limitations on use of RACES frequencies; points of communication for RACES operation; permissible communications E1D01 (B) [97.3(a)(37)] What is the Radio Amateur Civil Emergency Service (RACES)? A. A radio service using amateur service frequencies on a regular basis for communications that can reasonably be furnished through other radio services B. A radio service using amateur stations for civil defense communications during periods of local, regional, or national civil emergencies C. A radio service using amateur service frequencies for broadcasting to the public D. A radio service using local government frequencies by Amateur Radio operators for emergency communications E1D02 (A) [97.3(a)(37)] What is the purpose of RACES? A. To provide civil-defense communications during emergencies B. To provide emergency communications for boat or aircraft races C. To provide routine and emergency communications for athletic races D. To provide routine and emergency military communications E1D03 (C) [97.407(a)] With what organization must an amateur station be registered before participating in RACES? A. The Amateur Radio Emergency Service B. The US Department of Defense C. A civil defense organization D. The FCC Enforcement Bureau E1D04 (C) [97.407(a)] Which amateur stations may be operated in RACES? A. Only those licensed to Amateur Extra class operators B. Any FCC-licensed amateur station except a station licensed to a Technician class operator C. Any FCC-licensed amateur station certified by the responsible civil defense organization for the area served D. Any FCC licensed amateur station participating in the Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) E1D05 (A) [97.407(b)] What frequencies are authorized normally to an amateur station participating in RACES? A. All amateur service frequencies otherwise authorized to the control operator B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands C. Specific local government channels D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels E1D06 (B) [97.407(b)] What are the frequencies authorized to an amateur station participating in RACES during a period when the President's War Emergency Powers are in force? A. All frequencies in the amateur service authorized to the control operator B. Specific segments in the amateur service MF, HF, VHF and UHF bands C. Specific local government channels D. Military Affiliate Radio System (MARS) channels E1D07 (D) [97.407(b)] What frequencies are normally available for RACES operation? A. Only those authorized to the civil defense organization B. Only those authorized to federal government communications C. Only the top 25 kHz of each amateur service band D. All frequencies authorized to the amateur service E1D08 (A) [97.407(b)] What type of emergency can cause limits to be placed on the frequencies available for RACES operation? A. An emergency during which the President's War Emergency Powers are invoked B. An emergency in only one of the United States would limit RACES operations to a single HF band C. An emergency confined to a 25-mile area would limit RACES operations to a single VHF band D. An emergency involving no immediate danger of loss of life E1D09 (C) [97.407(a)] Who may be the control operator of a RACES station? A. Anyone holding an FCC-issued amateur operator license other than Novice B. Only an Amateur Extra Class operator licensee C. Anyone who holds an FCC-issued amateur operator license and is certified by a civil defense organization D. Any person certified as a RACES radio operator by a civil defense organization and who hold an FCC issued GMRS license E1D10 (B) [97.407(c), (d)] With which stations may amateur stations participating in RACES communicate? A. Any amateur station B. Amateur stations participating in RACES and specific other stations authorized by the responsible civil defense official C. Any amateur station or a station in the Disaster Communications Service D. Any Citizens Band station that is also registered in RACES E1D11 (C) [97.407(e)] What communications are permissible in RACES? A. Any type of communications when there is no emergency B. Any Amateur Radio Emergency Service communications C. National defense or immediate safety of people and property and communications authorized by the area civil defense organization D. National defense and security or immediate safety of people and property communications authorized by the President E1E Amateur Satellite Service: definition; purpose; station license required for space station; frequencies available; telecommand operation: definition; eligibility; telecommand station (definition); space telecommand station; special provisions; telemetry: definition; special provisions; space station: definition; eligibility; special provisions; authorized frequencies (space station); notification requirements; earth operation: definition; eligibility; authorized frequencies (Earth station) E1E01 (C) [97.3(a)(3)] What is the amateur-satellite service? A. A radio navigation service using satellites for the purpose of self- training, intercommunication and technical studies carried out by amateurs B. A spacecraft launching service for amateur-built satellites C. A service using amateur stations on satellites for the purpose of self- training, intercommunication and technical investigations D. A radio communications service using stations on Earth satellites for weather information gathering E1E02 (A) [97.3(a)(40)] What is a space station in the amateur-satellite service? A. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface B. An amateur station designed for communications with other amateur stations by means of Earth satellites C. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of an Earth station D. An amateur station designed for communications with other amateur stations by reflecting signals off objects in space E1E03 (A) [97.3(a)(44)] What is a telecommand station in the amateur-satellite service? A. An amateur station that transmits communications to initiate, modify or terminate functions of a space station B. An amateur station located on the Earth's surface for communications with other Earth stations by means of Earth satellites C. An amateur station located more than 50 km above the Earth's surface D. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurements of upper atmosphere data from space E1E04 (A) [97.3(a)(16)] What is an earth station in the amateur-satellite service? A. An amateur station within 50 km of the Earth's surface for communications with Amateur stations by means of objects in space B. An amateur station that is not able to communicate using amateur satellites C. An amateur station that transmits telemetry consisting of measurement of upper atmosphere data from space D. Any amateur station on the surface of the Earth E1E05 (D) [97.207] Which of the following types of communications may space stations transmit? A. Automatic retransmission of signals from Earth stations and other space stations B. One-way communications C. Telemetry consisting of specially coded messages D. All of these choices are correct E1E06 (D) [97.207 (a)] Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as a space station? A. Any except those of Technician Class operators B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators C. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators D. Any FCC-licensed amateur station E1E07 (A) [97.207(b)] What special provision must a space station incorporate in order to comply with space station requirements? A. The space station must be capable of effecting a cessation of transmissions by telecommand whenever so ordered by the FCC B. The space station must cease all transmissions after 5 years C. The space station must be capable of changing its orbit whenever such a change is ordered by NASA D. The station call sign must appear on all sides of the spacecraft E1E08 (D) [97.207(g)(1)] When must the licensee of a space station give the FCC International Bureau the first written pre-space notification? A. Any time before initiating the launch countdown for the spacecraft B. No less than 3 months after initiating construction of the space station C. No less that 12 months before launch of the space station platform D. No less than 27 months prior to initiating space station transmissions E1E09 (A) [97.207] Which amateur service HF bands have frequencies authorized to space stations? A. Only 40m, 20m, 17m, 15m, 12m and 10m B. Only 40 m, 20 m, 17m, 15 m and 10 m bands C. 40 m, 30 m, 20 m, 15 m, 12 m and 10 m bands D. All HF bands E1E10 (A) [97.207] Which VHF amateur service bands have frequencies available for space stations? A. 2 meters B. 2 meters and 1.25 meters C. 6 meters, 2 meters, and 1.25 meters D. 6 meters and 2 meters E1E11 (A) [97.207] Which amateur service UHF bands have frequencies available for a space station? A. 70 cm, 23 cm, 13 cm B. 70 cm C. 70 cm and 33 cm D. 33 cm and 13 cm E1E12 (B) [97.211 (a)] Which amateur stations are eligible to be telecommand stations? A. Any amateur station designated by NASA B. Any amateur station so designated by the space station licensee C. Any amateur station so designated by the ITU D. All of these choices are correct E1E13 (A) [97.211 (b)] What unique privilege is afforded a telecommand station? A. A telecommand station may transmit command messages to the space station using codes intended to obscure their meaning B. A telecommand station may transmit music to the space station C. A telecommand station may transmit with a PEP output of 5000 watts D. A telecommand station is not required to transmit its call sign at the end of the communication E1E14 (C) [97.207 (f)] What is the term for space-to-Earth transmissions used to communicate the results of measurements made by a space station? A. Data transmission B. Frame check sequence C. Telemetry D. Space-to-Earth telemetry indicator (SETI) transmissions E1E15 (D) [97.209 (a)] Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations? A. Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC International Bureau B. Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators C. Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators D. Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator E1F Volunteer Examiner Coordinators (VECs): definition; VEC qualifications; VEC agreement; scheduling examinations; coordinating VEs; reimbursement for expenses; accrediting VEs; question pools; Volunteer Examiners (VEs): definition; requirements; accreditation; reimbursement for expenses; VE conduct; preparing an examination; examination elements; definition of code and written elements; preparation responsibility; examination requirements; examination credit; examination procedure; examination administration; temporary operating authority E1F01 (D) [97.507 (a), (b), (c),97.523] Who may prepare an Element 4 amateur operator license examination? A. The VEC Question Pool Committee, which selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool B. A VEC that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin C. An Extra class VE that selects questions from the appropriate FCC bulletin D. An Extra class VE or a qualified supplier who selects questions from the appropriate VEC question pool E1F02 (C) [97.507(b)] Where are the questions listed that must be used in all written US amateur license examinations? A. In the instructions that each VEC give to their VEs B. In an FCC-maintained question pool C. In the VEC-maintained question pool D. In the appropriate FCC Report and Order E1F03 (A) [97.523] Who is responsible for maintaining the question pools from which all amateur license examination questions must be taken? A. All of the VECs B. The VE team C. The VE question pool team D. The FCC Wireless Telecommunications Bureau E1F04 (C) [97.507(a)(1)] Who must select from the VEC question pool the set of questions that are administered in an Element 3 examination? A. Only a VE holding an Amateur Extra Class operator license grant B. The VEC coordinating the examination session C. A VE holding an FCC-issued Amateur Extra or Advanced Class operator license grant D. The FCC Enforcement Bureau E1F05 (B) [97.507(a)(2)] Who must select from the VEC question pool the set of questions that are administered in an Element 2 examination? A. The VEC coordinating the examination session B. A VE holding an FCC-issued Technician, General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operator license grant C. Only a VE holding an Amateur Extra or Advanced Class operator license grant D. The FCC Office of Engineering and Technology E1F06 (C) [97.503(a)] What is the purpose of an amateur operator telegraphy examination? A. It determines the examinee's level of commitment to the amateur service B. All of these choices are correct C. It proves that the examinee has the ability to send correctly by hand and to receive correctly by ear texts in the International Morse Code D. It helps preserve the proud tradition of radiotelegraphy skill in the amateur service E1F07 (A) [97.503(b)] What is the purpose of an Element 4 examination? A. It proves the examinee has the qualifications necessary to perform properly the duties of an Amateur Extra Class operator B. It proves the examinee is qualified as an electronics technician C. It proves the examinee is an electronics expert D. It proves that the examinee is an expert radio operator E1F08 (C) [97.521] What is a Volunteer-Examiner Coordinator? A. A person who has volunteered to administer amateur operator license examinations B. A person who has volunteered to prepare amateur operator license examinations C. An organization that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to coordinate amateur operator license examinations D. The person that has entered into an agreement with the FCC to be the VE session manager E1F09 (B) [97.3(a)(48)] What is an accredited Volunteer Examiner? A. An amateur operator who is approved by three or more fellow volunteer examiners to administer amateur license examinations B. An amateur operator who is approved by a VEC to administer amateur operator license examinations C. An amateur operator who administers amateur license examinations for a fee D. An amateur operator who is approved by an FCC staff member to administer amateur operator license examinations E1F10 (A) [97.509(a)] What is a VE Team? A. A group of at least three VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license B. The VEC staff C. One or two VEs who administer examinations for an amateur operator license D. A group of FCC Volunteer Enforcers who investigate Amateur Rules violations E1F11 (C) [97.509(b)(4)] Which persons seeking to be VEs cannot be accredited? A. Persons holding less than an Advanced Class operator license B. Persons less than 21 years of age C. Persons who have ever had an amateur operator or amateur station license suspended or revoked D. Persons who are employees of the federal government E1F12 (D) [97.509(b)(1), 97.525] What is the VE accreditation process? A. Each General, Advanced and Amateur Extra Class operator is automatically accredited as a VE when the license is granted B. The amateur operator must pass a VE examination administered by the FCC Enforcement Bureau C. The prospective VE obtains accreditation from a VE team D. Each VEC ensures that its Volunteer Examiner applicants meet FCC requirements to serve as VEs E1F13 (A) [97.509(c)] Where must the VE team be stationed while administering an examination? A. All administering VEs must all be present and observing the examinees throughout the entire examination B. The VEs must leave the room after handing out the exam(s) to allow the examinees to concentrate on the exam material C. The VEs may be elsewhere provide at least one VE is present and is observing the examinees throughout the entire examination D. The VEs may be anywhere as long as they each certify in writing that examination was administered properly E1F14 (C) [97.509(c)] Who is responsible for the proper conduct and necessary supervision during an amateur operator license examination session? A. The VEC coordinating the session B. The FCC C. The administering VEs D. The VE session manager E1F15 (B) [97.509(c)] What should a VE do if a candidate fails to comply with the examiner's instructions during an amateur operator license examination? A. Warn the candidate that continued failure to comply will result in termination of the examination B. Immediately terminate the candidate's examination C. Allow the candidate to complete the examination, but invalidate the results D. Immediately terminate everyone's examination and close the session E1F16 (A) [97.509(k)] What special procedures must a VE team follow for an examinee with a physical disability? A. A special procedure that accommodates the disability B. A special procedure specified by the coordinating VEC C. A special procedure specified by a physician D. None; the VE team does not have to provide special procedures E1F17 (A) [97.509(d)] To which of the following examinees may a VE not administer an examination? A. The VE's close relatives as listed in the FCC rules B. Acquaintances of the VE C. Friends of the VE D. There are no restrictions as to whom a VE may administer an examination E1F18 (A) [97.509(e)] What may be the penalty for a VE who fraudulently administers or certifies an examination? A. Revocation of the VE's amateur station license grant and the suspension of the VE's amateur operator license grant B. A fine of up to $1000 per occurrence C. A sentence of up to one year in prison D. All of these choices are correct E1F19 (C) [97.509(h)] What must the VE team do with your test papers when you have finished this examination? A. The VE team must collect them for grading at a later date B. The VE team must collect and send them to the coordinating VEC for grading C. The VE team must collect and grade them immediately D. The VE team must collect and send them to the FCC for grading E1F20 (D) [97.519(b)] What action must the coordinating VEC complete within 10 days of collecting the information from an examination session? A. Screen collected information B. Resolve all discrepancies and verify that the VEs' certifications are properly completed C. For qualified examinees, forward electronically all required data to the FCC D. All of these choices are correct E1F21 (D) [97.509(i)] What must the VE team do if an examinee scores a passing grade on all examination elements needed for an upgrade or new license? A. Photocopy all examination documents and forwards them to the FCC for processing B. Notify the FCC that the examinee is eligible for a license grant C. Issue the examinee the new or upgrade license D. Three VEs must certify that the examinee is qualified for the license grant and that they have complied with the VE requirements E1F22 (A) [97.509(j)] What must the VE team do if the examinee does not score a passing grade on the examination? A. Return the application document to the examinee and inform the examinee of the grade B. Return the application document to the examinee C. Inform the examinee that he or she did not pass D. Explain how the incorrect questions should have been answered E1F23 (A) [97.519(d)(3)] What are the consequences of failing to appear for readministration of an examination when so directed by the FCC? A. The licensee's license will be cancelled and a new license will be issued that is consistent with examination elements not invalidated B. The licensee must pay a monetary fine C. The licensee is disqualified from any future examination for an amateur operator license grant D. The person may be sentenced to incarceration E1F24 (A) [97.527] What are the types of out-of-pocket expenses for which the FCC rules authorize a VE and VEC to accept reimbursement? A. Preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination for an amateur radio license B. Teaching an amateur operator license examination preparation course C. None; a VE must never accept any type of reimbursement D. Providing amateur operator license examination preparation training materials E1F25 (A) [97.509(e), 97.527] How much reimbursement may the VE team and VEC accept for preparing, processing, administering and coordinating an examination? A. Actual out-of-pocket expenses B. Up to the national minimum hourly wage times the number of hours spent providing the services C. Up to the maximum fee per examinee announced by the FCC annually D. As much as the examinee is willing to donate E1F26 (C) [97.505(a)(6)] What amateur operator license examination credit must be given for a valid Certificate of Successful Completion of Examination (CSCE)? A. Only the written elements the CSCE indicates the examinee passed with in the previous 365 days B. Only the telegraphy elements the CSCE indicates the examinee passed within the previous 365 days C. Each element the CSCE indicates the examinee passed within the previous 365 days D. None E1F27 (C) [97.301(e)] For what period of time does a Technician class licensee, who has just been issued a CSCE for having passed a 5 WPM Morse code examination, have authority to operate on the Novice/Technician HF subbands? A. 365 days from the examination date as indicated on the CSCE B. 1 year from the examination date as indicated on the CSCE C. Indefinitely, so long as the Technician license remains valid D. 5 years plus a 5-year grace period from the examination date as indicated on the CSCE E1F28 (A) [97.505(a)(6)] What period of time does a Technician class licensee, who has just been issued a CSCE for having passed a 5 WPM Morse code examination, have in order to use this credit toward a license upgrade? A. 365 days from the examination date as indicated on the CSCE B. 15 months from the examination date as indicated on the CSCE C. There is no time limit, so long as the Technician license remains valid D. 5 years plus a 5-year grace period from the examination date as indicated on the CSCE E1G Certification of external RF power amplifiers and external RF power amplifier kits; Line A; National Radio Quiet Zone; business communications; definition and operation of spread spectrum; auxiliary station operation E1G01 (B) [97.315(c)] What does it mean if an external RF amplifier is listed on the FCC database as certificated for use in the amateur service? A. An RF amplifier of that model may be used in any radio service B. That particular RF amplifier model may be marketed for use in the amateur service C. All similar models of RF amplifiers produced by other manufacturers may be marketed D. All models of RF amplifiers produced by that manufacturer may be marketed E1G02 (B)[97.317(a)(3)] Which of the following is one of the standards that must be met by an external RF power amplifier if it is to qualify for a grant of Certification? A. It must have a time-delay to prevent it from operating continuously for more than ten minutes B. It must satisfy the spurious emission standards when driven with at least 50W mean RF power (unless a higher drive level is specified) C. It must not be capable of modification without voiding the warranty D. It must exhibit no more than 6dB of gain over its entire operating range E1G03 (A) [97.315(b)(5)] Under what condition may an equipment dealer sell an external RF power amplifier capable of operation below 144 MHz if it has not been granted FCC certification? A. It was purchased in used condition from an amateur operator and is sold to another amateur operator for use at that operator's station B. The equipment dealer assembled it from a kit C. It was imported from a manufacturer in a country that does not require certification of RF power amplifiers D. It was imported from a manufacturer in another country, and it was certificated by that country's government E1G04 (A) [97.3(a)(32)] Which of the following geographic descriptions approximately describes Line A? A. A line roughly parallel to, and south of, the US-Canadian border B. A line roughly parallel to, and west of, the US Atlantic coastline C. A line roughly parallel to, and north of, the US-Mexican border and Gulf coastline D. A line roughly parallel to, and east of, the US Pacific coastline E1G05 (D) [97.303(f)(1)] Amateur stations may not transmit in which frequency segment if they are located north of Line A? A. 21.225-21.300 MHz B. 53-54 MHz C. 222-223 MHz D. 420-430 MHz E1G06 (C) [97.3 (a)(32)] What is the National Radio Quiet Zone? A. An area in Puerto Rico surrounding the Aricebo Radio Telescope B. An area in New Mexico surrounding the White Sands Test Area C. An Area in Maryland, West Virginia and Virginia surrounding the National Radio Astronomy Observatory D. An area in Florida surrounding Cape Canaveral E1G07 (A) [97.203(e)] What type of automatically controlled amateur station must not be established in the National Radio Quiet Zone before the licensee gives written notification to the National Radio Astronomy Observatory? A. Beacon station B. Auxiliary station C. Repeater station D. Earth station E1G08 (D) [97.113(a)(2)] When may the control operator of a repeater accept payment for providing communication services to another party? A. When the repeater is operating under portable power B. When the repeater is operating under local control C. During Red Cross or other emergency service drills D. Under no circumstances E1G09 (D) [97.113(a)(3)] When may an amateur station send a message to a business? A. When the total money involved does not exceed $25 B. When the control operator is employed by the FCC or another government agency C. When transmitting international third-party communications D. When neither the amateur nor his or her employer has a pecuniary interest in the communications E1G10 (A) [97.113] Which of the following types of amateur operator-to-amateur operator communication are prohibited? A. Communications transmitted for hire or material compensation, except as otherwise provided in the rules B. Communication that has a political content C. Communication that has a religious content D. Communication in a language other English E1G11 (C) [97.3(c)(8)] What is the term for emissions using bandwidth-expansion modulation? A. RTTY B. Image C. Spread spectrum D. Pulse E1G12 (D) [97.311(a)] FCC-licensed amateur stations may use spread spectrum (SS) emissions to communicate under which of the following conditions? A. When the other station is in an area regulated by the FCC B. When the other station is in a country permitting SS communications C. When the transmission is not used to obscure the meaning of any communication D. All of these choices are correct E1G13 (C) [97.311(d)] Under any circumstance, what is the maximum transmitter power for an amateur station transmitting emission type SS communications? A. 1 W B. 1.5 W C. 100 W D. 1.5 kW E1G14 (D) [97.109(c)] What of the following is a use for an auxiliary station? A. To provide a point-to-point communications uplink between a control point and its associated remotely controlled station B. To provide a point-to-point communications downlink between a remotely controlled station and its control point C. To provide a point-to-point control link between a control point and its associated remotely controlled station D. All of these choices are correct SUBELEMENT E2 -- OPERATING PROCEDURES [5 Exam Questions - 5 Groups] E2A Amateur Satellites: orbital mechanics; frequencies available for satellite operation; satellite hardware; satellite operations E2A01 (C) What is the direction of an ascending pass for an amateur satellite? A. From west to east B. From east to west C. From south to north D. From north to south E2A02 (A) What is the direction of a descending pass for an amateur satellite? A. From north to south B. From west to east C. From east to west D. From south to north E2A03 (C) What is the period of an amateur satellite? A. The point of maximum height of a satellite's orbit B. The point of minimum height of a satellite's orbit C. The amount of time it takes for a satellite to complete one orbit D. The time it takes a satellite to travel from perigee to apogee E2A04 (D) What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode V/H in amateur satellite operations? A. Satellite receiving on Amateur bands in the range of 21 to 30 MHz and retransmitting on 144 to 148 MHz B. Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and retransmitting on 144 to 148 MHz C. Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and retransmitting on Amateur bands in the range of 21 to 30 MHz D. Satellite receiving on 144 to 148 MHz and retransmitting on Amateur bands in the range of 21 to 30 MHz E2A05 (B) What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode U/V in amateur satellite operations? A. Satellite receiving on Amateur bands in the range of 21 to 30 MHz and retransmitting on 144 to 148 MHz B. Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and retransmitting on 144 to 148 MHz C. Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and retransmitting on Amateur bands in the range of 21 to 30 MHz D. Satellite receiving on 144 to 148 MHz and retransmitting on Amateur bands in the range of 21 to 30 MHz E2A06 (C) What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode V/U in amateur satellite operations? A. Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and retransmitting on 144 to 148 MHz B. Satellite receiving on 144 to 148 MHz and retransmitting on Amateur bands in the range of 21 to 30 MHz C. Satellite receiving on 144 to 148 MHz and retransmitting on 435 to 438 MHz D. Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and transmitting on 21 to 30 MHz E2A07 (D) What are the receiving and retransmitting frequency bands used for Mode L/U in amateur satellite operations? A. Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and retransmitting on 21 to 30 MHz B. Satellite receiving on Amateur bands in the range of 21 to 30 MHz and retransmitting on 435 to 438 MHz C. Satellite receiving on 435 to 438 MHz and retransmitting on 1.26 to 1.27 GHz D. Satellite receiving on 1.26 to 1.27 GHz and retransmitting on 435 to 438 MHz E2A08 (B) What is a linear transponder? A. A repeater that passes only linear or CW signals B. A device that receives and retransmits signals of any mode in a certain passband C. An amplifier that varies its output linearly in response to input signals D. A device that responds to satellite telecommands and is used to activate a linear sequence of events E2A09 (D) What is the name of the effect that causes the downlink frequency of a satellite to vary by several kHz during a low-earth orbit? A. The Kepler effect B. The Bernoulli effect C. The Einstein effect D. The Doppler effect E2A10 (A) Why may the received signal from an amateur satellite exhibit a fairly rapid pulsed fading effect? A. Because the satellite is rotating B. Because of ionospheric absorption C. Because of the satellite's low orbital altitude D. Because of the Doppler effect E2A11 (B) What type of antenna can be used to minimize the effects of spin modulation and Faraday rotation? A. A nonpolarized antenna B. A circularly polarized antenna C. An isotropic antenna D. A log-periodic dipole array E2A12 (D) How may the location of a satellite at a given time be predicted? A. By means of the Doppler data for the specified satellite B. By subtracting the mean anomaly from the orbital inclination C. By adding the mean anomaly to the orbital inclination D. By means of the Keplerian elements for the specified satellite E2B Television: fast scan television (FSTV) standards; slow scan television (SSTV) standards; facsimile (fax) communications E2B01 (A) How many times per second is a new frame transmitted in a fast-scan television system? A. 30 B. 60 C. 90 D. 120 E2B02 (C) How many horizontal lines make up a fast-scan television frame? A. 30 B. 60 C. 525 D. 1050 E2B03 (D) How is the interlace scanning pattern generated in a fast-scan television system? A. By scanning the field from top to bottom B. By scanning the field from bottom to top C. By scanning from left to right in one field and right to left in the next D. By scanning odd numbered lines in one field and even numbered ones in the next E2B04 (B) What is blanking in a video signal? A. Synchronization of the horizontal and vertical sync pulses B. Turning off the scanning beam while it is traveling from right to left and from bottom to top C. Turning off the scanning beam at the conclusion of a transmission D. Transmitting a black and white test pattern E2B05 (D) What is the bandwidth of a vestigial sideband AM fast-scan television transmission? A. 3 kHz B. 10 kHz C. 25 kHz D. 6 MHz E2B06 (C) What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for black in amateur fast scan television? A. 0% B. 12.5% C. 70% D. 100% E2B07 (C) What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for blanking in amateur fast scan television? A. 0% B. 12.5% C. 75% D. 100% E2B08 (A) Which of the following is NOT a common method of transmitting accompanying audio with amateur fast-scan television? A. Amplitude modulation of the video carrier B. Frequency-modulated sub-carrier C. A separate VHF or UHF audio link D. Frequency modulation of the video carrier E2B09 (D) What is facsimile? A. The transmission of characters by radioteletype that form a picture when printed B. The transmission of still pictures by slow-scan television C. The transmission of video by amateur television D. The transmission of printed pictures for permanent display on paper E2B10 (A) What is the modern standard scan rate for a fax image transmitted by an amateur station? A. 240 lines per minute B. 50 lines per minute C. 150 lines per second D. 60 lines per second E2B11 (B) What is the approximate transmission time per frame for a fax picture transmitted by an amateur station at 240 lpm? A. 6 minutes B. 3.3 minutes C. 6 seconds D. 1/60 second E2B12 (D) What information is sent by slow-scan television transmissions? A. Baudot or ASCII characters that form a picture when printed B. Pictures for permanent display on paper C. Moving pictures D. Still pictures E2B13 (C) How many lines are commonly used in each frame on an amateur slow-scan color television picture? A. 30 to 60 B. 60 or 100 C. 128 or 256 D. 180 or 360 E2B14 (C) What is the audio frequency for black in an amateur slow-scan television picture? A. 2300 Hz B. 2000 Hz C. 1500 Hz D. 120 Hz E2B15 (D) What is the audio frequency for white in an amateur slow-scan television picture? A. 120 Hz B. 1500 Hz C. 2000 Hz D. 2300 Hz E2B16 (B) What is the standard video level, in percent PEV, for white in an amateur fast- scan television transmission? A. 0% B. 12.5% C. 70% D. 100% E2B17 (A) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of FMTV (Frequency-Modulated Amateur Television) as compared to vestigial sideband AM television? A. Immunity from fading due to limiting B. Poor weak signal performance C. Greater signal bandwidth D. Greater complexity of receiving equipment E2B18 (B) What is the approximate bandwidth of a slow-scan TV signal? A. 600 Hz B. 2 kHz C. 2 MHz D. 6 MHz E2B19 (D) Which of the following systems is used to transmit high-quality still images by radio? A. AMTOR B. Baudot RTTY C. AMTEX D. Facsimile E2B20 (C) What special restrictions are imposed on fax transmissions? A. None; they are allowed on all amateur frequencies B. They are restricted to 7.245 MHz, 14.245 MHz, 21.345, MHz, and 28.945 MHz C. They are allowed in phone band segments if their bandwidth is no greater than that of a voice signal of the same modulation type D. They are not permitted above 54 MHz E2C Contest and DX operating; spread-spectrum transmissions; automatic HF forwarding; selecting your operating frequency E2C01 (A) When operating during a contest, which of these standards should you generally follow? A. Always listen before transmitting, be courteous and do not cause harmful interference to other communications B. Always reply to other stations calling CQ at least as many times as you call CQ C. When initiating a contact, always reply with the call sign of the station you are calling followed by your own call sign D. Always include your signal report, name and transmitter power output in any exchange with another station E2C02 (B) What is one of the main purposes for holding on-the-air operating contests? A. To test the dollar-to-feature value of station equipment during difficult operating circumstances B. To enhance the communicating and operating skills of amateur operators in readiness for an emergency C. To measure the ionospheres capacity for refracting RF signals under varying conditions D. To demonstrate to the FCC that amateur station operation is possible during difficult operating circumstances E2C03 (C) Which of the following is typical of operations during an international amateur DX contest? A. Calling CQ is always done on an odd minute and listening is always done on an even minute B. Contacting a DX station is best accomplished when the WWV K index is above a reading of 8 C. Some DX operators use split frequency operations (transmitting on a frequency different from the receiving frequency) D. DX contacts during the day are never possible because of known band attenuation from the sun E2C04 (D) If a DX station asks for your grid square locator, what should be your reply? A. The square of the power fed to the grid of your final amplifier and your current city, state and country B. The DX station's call sign followed by your call sign and your RST signal report C. The subsection of the IARU region in which you are located based upon dividing the entire region into a grid of squares 10 km wide D. Your geographic Maidenhead grid location (e.g., FN31AA) based on your current latitude and longitude E2C05 (A) What does a Maidenhead gridsquare refer to? A. A two-degree longitude by one-degree latitude square, as part of a world wide numbering system B. A one-degree longitude by one degree latitude square, beginning at the South Pole C. An antenna made of wire grid used to amplify low-angle incoming signals while reducing high-angle incoming signals D. An antenna consisting of a screen or grid positioned directly beneath the radiating element E2C06 (C) During a VHF/UHF contest, in which band section would you expect to find the highest level of contest activity? A. At the top of each band, usually in a segment reserved for contests B. In the middle of each band, usually on the national calling frequency C. In the weak signal segment of the band, with most of the activity near the calling frequency D. In the middle of the band, usually 25 kHz above the national calling frequency E2C07 (C) If you are in the US calling a station in Texas on a frequency of 1832 kHz and a station replies that you are in the window, what does this mean? A. You are operating out of the band privileges of your license B. You are calling at the wrong time of day to be within the window of frequencies that can be received in Texas at that time C. You are transmitting in a frequency segment that is reserved for international DX contacts by gentlemen's agreement D. Your modulation has reached an undesirable level and you are interfering with another contact E2C08 (A) Why are received spread-spectrum signals so resistant to interference? A. Signals not using the spectrum-spreading algorithm are suppressed in the receiver B. The high power used by a spread-spectrum transmitter keeps its signal from being easily overpowered C. The receiver is always equipped with a special digital signal processor (DSP) interference filter D. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies E2C09 (D) How does the spread-spectrum technique of frequency hopping (FH) work? A. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to change frequencies B. If interference is detected by the receiver it will signal the transmitter to wait until the frequency is clear C. A pseudo-random binary bit stream is used to shift the phase of an RF carrier very rapidly in a particular sequence D. The frequency of the transmitted signal is changed very rapidly according to a particular sequence also used by the receiving station E2C10 (A) While participating in an HF contest, how should you attempt to contact a station calling CQ and stating that he is listening on another specific frequency? A. By sending your full call sign on the listening frequency specified B. By sending only the suffix of your call sign on the listening Frequency C. By sending your full call sign on the frequency on which you heard the station calling CQ D. By sending only the suffix of your call sign on the frequency on which you heard the station calling CQ E2C11 (A) When operating SSB in a VHF contest, how should your attempt to contact a station calling CQ while a pileup of other stations are also trying to contact the same station? A. By sending your full call sign after the distant station transmits QRZ B. By sending only the last letters of your call sign after the distant station transmits QRZ C. By sending your full call sign and grid square as soon as you hear the distant station transmit QRZ D. By sending the call sign of the distant station three times, the words "this is", then your call sign three times E2C12 (B) In North America during low sunspot activity, signals from Europe become weak and fluttery across an entire HF band two to three hours after sunset, what might help to contact other European DX stations? A. Switch to a higher frequency HF band, because the MUF has increased B. Switch to a lower frequency HF band because the MUF has decreased C. Wait 90 minutes or so for the signal degradation to pass D. Wait 24 hours before attempting another communication on the band E2D Operating VHF / UHF digital modes: packet clusters; digital bulletin boards; Automatic Position Reporting System (APRS) E2D01 (B) What does CMD: mean when it is displayed on the video monitor of a packet station? A. The TNC is ready to exit the packet terminal program B. The TNC is in command mode, ready to receive instructions from the keyboard C. The TNC will exit to the command mode on the next keystroke D. The TNC is in KISS mode running TCP/IP, ready for the next command E2D02 (A) What is a Packet Cluster Bulletin Board? A. A packet bulletin board devoted primarily to serving a special interest group B. A group of general-purpose packet bulletin boards linked together in a cluster C. A special interest cluster of packet bulletin boards devoted entirely to packet radio computer communications D. A special interest telephone/modem bulletin board devoted to amateur DX operations E2D03 (C) In comparing HF and 2-meter packet Operations, which of the following is NOT true? A. HF packet typically uses an FSK signal with a data rate of 300 bauds; 2- meter packet uses an AFSK signal with a data rate of 1200 bauds B. HF packet and 2-meter packet operations use the same code for information exchange C. HF packet is limited to Amateur Extra class amateur licensees; 2-meter packet is open to all but Novice Class amateur licensees D. HF packet operations are limited to CW/Data-only band segments; 2-meter packet is allowed wherever FM operations are allowed E2D04 (C) What is the purpose of a digital store and forward on an Amateur satellite? A. To stockpile packet TNCs and other digital hardware to be distributed to RACES operators in the event of an emergency B. To relay messages across the country via a network of HF digital stations C. To store messages in an amateur satellite for later download by other stations D. To store messages in a packet digipeater for relay via the Internet E2D05 (B) Which of the following techniques is normally used by low-earth orbiting digital satellites to relay messages around the world? A. Digipeating B. Store and forward C. Multi-satellite relaying D. Node hopping E2D06 (B) What is the common 2-meter APRS frequency? A. 144.20 MHz B. 144.39 MHz C. 145.02 MHz D. 146.52 MHz E2D07 (A) Which of the following digital protocols does APRS use? A. AX.25 B. 802.11 C. PACTOR D. AMTOR E2D08 (D) Which of the following types of packet frames is used to transmit APRS beacon data? A. Connect frames B. Disconnect frames C. Acknowledgement frames D. Unnumbered Information frames E2D09 (D) Under clear communications conditions, which of these digital communications modes has the fastest data throughput? A. AMTOR B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY C. PSK31 D. 300-baud packet E2D10 (C) How can an APRS station be used to help support a public service communications activity, such as a walk-a-thon? A. An APRS station with an emergency medical technician can automatically transmit medical data to the nearest hospital B. APRS stations with General Personnel Scanners can automatically relay the participant numbers and time as they pass the check points C. An APRS station with a GPS unit can automatically transmit information to show the station's position along the course route D. All of these choices are correct E2D11 (D) Which of the following data sources are needed to accurately transmit your geographical location over the APRS network? A. The NMEA-0183 formatted data from a Global Positioning System (GPS) satellite receiver B. The latitude and longitude of your location, preferably in degrees, minutes and seconds, entered into the APRS computer software C. The NMEA-0183 formatted data from a LORAN navigation system D. All of these choices are correct E2E Operating HF digital modes E2E01 (B) What is the most common method of transmitting data emissions below 30 MHz? A. DTMF tones modulating an FM signal B. FSK (frequency-shift keying) of an RF carrier C. AFSK (audio frequency-shift keying) of an FM signal D. Key-operated on/off switching of an RF carrier E2E02 (A) What do the letters FEC mean as they relate to AMTOR operation? A. Forward Error Correction B. First Error Correction C. Fatal Error Correction D. Final Error Correction E2E03 (C) How is Forward Error Correction implemented? A. By transmitting blocks of 3 data characters from the sending station to the receiving station, which the receiving station acknowledges B. By transmitting a special FEC algorithm which the receiving station uses for data validation C. By transmitting extra data that may be used to detect and correct transmission errors D. By varying the frequency shift of the transmitted signal according to a predefined algorithm E2E04 (A) If an oscilloscope is connected to a TNC or terminal unit and is displaying two crossed ellipses, one of which suddenly disappears, what would this indicate about the observed signal? A. The phenomenon known as selective fading has occurred B. One of the signal filters has saturated C. The receiver should be retuned, as it has probably moved at least 5 kHz from the desired receive frequency D. The mark and space signal have been inverted and the receiving equipment has not yet responded to the change E2E05 (D) What is the name for a bulletin transmission system that includes a special header to allow receiving stations to determine if the bulletin has been previously received? A. ARQ mode A B. FEC mode B C. AMTOR D. AMTEX E2E06 (C) What is the most common data rate used for HF packet communications? A. 48 bauds B. 110 bauds C. 300 bauds D. 1200 bauds E2E07 (B) What is the typical bandwidth of a properly modulated MFSK16 signal? A. 31 Hz B. 316 Hz C. 550 Hz D. 2 kHz E2E08 (B) Which of the following HF digital modes can be used to transfer binary files? A. Hellschreiber B. PACTOR C. RTTY D. AMTOR E2E09 (A) Which of the following HF digital modes does NOT include error detection and correction? A. PSK31 B. PACTOR C. CLOVER D. G-TOR E2E10 (C) Which of the following HF digital modes use Reed-Solomon coding? A. AMTOR B. RTTY C. PSK31 D. CLOVER E2E11 (D) What is the Baudot code? A. A code used to transmit data only in modern computer-based data systems using seven data bits B. A binary code consisting of eight data bits C. An alternate name for Morse code D. The International Telegraph Alphabet Number 2 (ITA2) which uses five data bits E2E12 (C) Which of these digital communications modes has the narrowest bandwidth? A. AMTOR B. 170-Hz shift, 45 baud RTTY C. PSK31 D. 300-baud packet SUBELEMENT E3 -- RADIO WAVE PROPAGATION [3 Exam Questions - 3 Groups] E3A Earth-Moon-Earth (EME or moonbounce) communications; meteor scatter E3A01 (D) What is the maximum separation between two stations communicating by moonbounce? A. 500 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee B. 2000 miles maximum, if the moon is at apogee C. 5000 miles maximum, if the moon is at perigee D. Any distance as long as the stations have a mutual lunar window E3A02 (B) What characterizes libration fading of an earth-moon-earth signal? A. A slow change in the pitch of the CW signal B. A fluttery irregular fading C. A gradual loss of signal as the sun rises D. The returning echo is several hertz lower in frequency than the transmitted signal E3A03 (A) When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss? A. When the moon is at perigee B. When the moon is full C. When the moon is at apogee D. When the MUF is above 30 MHz E3A04 (D) What type of receiving system is desirable for EME communications? A. Equipment with very low power output B. Equipment with very low dynamic range C. Equipment with very low gain D. Equipment with very low noise figures E3A05 (A) What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting an earth-moon-earth contact? A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute C. Two-and-one-half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes D. Five-minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then receives for the following five minutes E3A06 (C) What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 432 MHz when attempting an EME contact? A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute C. Two and one half minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full 2.5 minutes and then receives for the following 2.5 minutes D. Five minute sequences, where one station transmits for five minutes and then receives for the following five minutes E3A07 (B) What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 2-meter band? A. 144.000 - 144.001 MHz B. 144.000 - 144.100 MHz C. 144.100 - 144.300 MHz D. 145.000 - 145.100 MHz E3A08 (D) What frequency range would you normally tune to find EME stations in the 70-cm band? A. 430.000 - 430.150 MHz B. 430.100 - 431.100 MHz C. 431.100 - 431.200 MHz D. 432.000 - 432.100 MHz E3A09 (A) When a meteor strikes the earth's atmosphere, a cylindrical region of free electrons is formed at what layer of the ionosphere? A. The E layer B. The F1 layer C. The F2 layer D. The D layer E3A10 (C) Which range of frequencies is well suited for meteor-scatter communications? A. 1.8 - 1.9 MHz B. 10 - 14 MHz C. 28 - 148 MHz D. 220 - 450 MHz E3A11 (C) What transmit and receive time sequencing is normally used on 144 MHz when attempting a meteor-scatter contact? A. Two-minute sequences, where one station transmits for a full two minutes and then receives for the following two minutes B. One-minute sequences, where one station transmits for one minute and then receives for the following one minute C. 15-second sequences, where one station transmits for 15 seconds and then receives for the following 15 seconds D. 30-second sequences, where one station transmits for 30 seconds and then receives for the following 30 seconds E3B Transequatorial; long path; gray line E3B01 (A) What is transequatorial propagation? A. Propagation between two points at approximately the same distance north and south of the magnetic equator B. Propagation between two points at approximately the same latitude on the magnetic equator C. Propagation between two continents by way of ducts along the magnetic equator D. Propagation between two stations at the same latitude E3B02 (C) What is the approximate maximum range for signals using transequatorial propagation? A. 1000 miles B. 2500 miles C. 5000 miles D. 7500 miles E3B03 (C) What is the best time of day for transequatorial propagation? A. Morning B. Noon C. Afternoon or early evening D. Late at night E3B04 (A) What type of propagation is probably occurring if an HF beam antenna must be pointed in a direction 180 degrees away from a station to receive the strongest signals? A. Long-path B. Sporadic-E C. Transequatorial D. Auroral E3B05 (C) On what amateur bands can long-path propagation provide signal enhancement? A. 160 to 40 meters B. 30 to 10 meters C. 160 to 10 meters D. 6 meters to 2 meters E3B06 (B) What amateur band consistently yields long-path enhancement using a modest antenna of relatively high gain? A. 80 meters B. 20 meters C. 10 meters D. 6 meters E3B07 (D) What is the typical reason for hearing an echo on the received signal of a station in Europe while directing your HF antenna toward the station? A. The station's transmitter has poor frequency stability B. The station's transmitter is producing spurious emissions C. Auroral conditions are causing a direct and a long-path reflected signal to be received D. There are two signals being received, one from the most direct path and one from long-path propagation E3B08 (D) What type of propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness? A. Transequatorial B. Sporadic-E C. Long-path D. Gray-line E3B09 (A) At what time of day is gray-line propagation most prevalent? A. Twilight, at sunrise and sunset B. When the sun is directly above the location of the transmitting station C. When the sun is directly overhead at the middle of the communications path between the two stations D. When the sun is directly above the location of the receiving station E3B10 (B) What is the cause of gray-line propagation? A. At midday the sun, being directly overhead, superheats the ionosphere causing increased refraction of radio waves B. At twilight solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization is not weakened enough to reduce the MUF C. At darkness solar absorption drops greatly while atmospheric ionization remains steady D. At mid afternoon the sun heats the ionosphere, increasing radio wave refraction and the MUF E3B11 (C) What communications are possible during gray-line propagation? A. Contacts up to 2,000 miles only on the 10-meter band B. Contacts up to 750 miles on the 6- and 2-meter bands C. Contacts up to 8,000 to 10,000 miles on three or four HF bands D. Contacts up to 12,000 to 15,000 miles on the 2 meter and 70 centimeter bands E3C Auroral propagation; selective fading; radio-path horizon; take-off angle over flat or sloping terrain; earth effects on propagation E3C01 (D) What effect does auroral activity have upon radio communications? A. The readability of SSB signals increases B. FM communications are clearer C. CW signals have a clearer tone D. CW signals have a fluttery tone E3C02 (C) What is the cause of auroral activity? A. A high sunspot level B. A low sunspot level C. The emission of charged particles from the sun D. Meteor showers concentrated in the northern latitudes E3C03 (D) Where in the ionosphere does auroral activity occur? A. At F-region height B. In the equatorial band C. At D-region height D. At E-region height E3C04 (A) Which emission mode is best for auroral propagation? A. CW B. SSB C. FM D. RTTY E3C05 (B) What causes selective fading? A. Small changes in beam heading at the receiving station B. Phase differences between radio-wave components of the same transmission, as experienced at the receiving station C. Large changes in the height of the ionosphere at the receiving station ordinarily occurring shortly after either sunrise or sunset D. Time differences between the receiving and transmitting stations E3C06 (A) How does the bandwidth of a transmitted signal affect selective fading? A. It is more pronounced at wide bandwidths B. It is more pronounced at narrow bandwidths C. It is the same for both narrow and wide bandwidths D. The receiver bandwidth determines the selective fading effect E3C07 (A) How much farther does the VHF/UHF radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? A. By approximately 15% of the distance B. By approximately twice the distance C. By approximately one-half the distance D. By approximately four times the distance E3C08 (B) For a 3-element beam antenna with horizontally mounted elements, how does the main lobe takeoff angle vary with height above flat ground? A. It increases with increasing height B. It decreases with increasing height C. It does not vary with height D. It depends on E-region height, not antenna height E3C09 (B) What is the name of the high-angle wave in HF propagation that travels for some distance within the F2 region? A. Oblique-angle ray B. Pedersen ray C. Ordinary ray D. Heaviside ray E3C10 (C) What effect is usually responsible for propagating a VHF signal over 500 miles? A. D-region absorption B. Faraday rotation C. Tropospheric ducting D. Moonbounce E3C11 (B) For a 3-element beam antenna with horizontally mounted elements, how does the main lobe takeoff angle vary with the downward slope of the ground (moving away from the antenna)? A. It increases as the slope gets steeper B. It decreases as the slope gets steeper C. It does not depend on the ground slope D. It depends of the F-region height E3C12 (B) In the northern hemisphere, in which direction should a directional antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of auroral propagation? A. South B. North C. East D. West E3C13 (B) As the frequency of a signal is increased, how does its ground wave propagation change? A. It increases B. It decreases C. It stays the same D. Radio waves don't propagate along the earth's surface E3C14 (A) What typical propagation does ground-wave propagation have? A. Vertical B. Horizontal C. Circular D. Elliptical E3C15 (D) Why does the radio-path horizon distance exceed the geometric horizon? A. E-region skip B. D-region skip C. Auroral skip D. Radio waves may be bent SUBELEMENT E4 -- AMATEUR RADIO PRACTICES [5 Exam Questions -- 5 Groups] E4A Test equipment: spectrum analyzers (interpreting spectrum analyzer displays; transmitter output spectrum), logic probes (indications of high and low states in digital circuits; indications of pulse conditions in digital circuits) E4A01 (C) How does a spectrum analyzer differ from a conventional time-domain oscilloscope? A. A spectrum analyzer measures ionospheric reflection; an oscilloscope displays electrical signals B. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the time domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the frequency domain C. A spectrum analyzer displays signals in the frequency domain; an oscilloscope displays signals in the time domain D. A spectrum analyzer displays radio frequencies; an oscilloscope displays audio frequencies E4A02 (D) What parameter does the horizontal axis of a spectrum analyzer display? A. Amplitude B. Voltage C. Resonance D. Frequency E4A03 (A) What parameter does the vertical axis of a spectrum analyzer display? A. Amplitude B. Duration C. Frequency D. Time E4A04 (A) Which test instrument is used to display spurious signals from a radio transmitter? A. A spectrum analyzer B. A wattmeter C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer E4A05 (B) Which test instrument is used to display intermodulation distortion products in an SSB transmission? A. A wattmeter B. A spectrum analyzer C. A logic analyzer D. A time-domain reflectometer E4A06 (C) Which of the following is NOT something that could be determined with a spectrum analyzer? A. The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer B. Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency C. The speed at which a transceiver switches from transmit to receive when being used for packet radio D. The spectral output of a transmitter E4A07 (B) What is an advantage of using a spectrum analyzer to observe the output from a VHF transmitter? A. There are no advantages; an inexpensive oscilloscope can display the same information B. It displays all frequency components of the transmitted signal C. It displays a time-varying representation of the modulation envelope D. It costs much less than any other instrumentation useful for such measurements E4A08 (D) What advantage does a logic probe have over a voltmeter for monitoring the status of a logic circuit? A. It has many more leads to connect to the circuit than a voltmeter B. It can be used to test analog and digital circuits C. It can read logic circuit voltage more accurately than a voltmeter D. It is smaller and shows a simplified readout E4A09 (C) Which test instrument is used to directly indicate high and low digital voltage states? A. An ohmmeter B. An electroscope C. A logic probe D. A Wheatstone bridge E4A10 (D) What can a logic probe indicate about a digital logic circuit? A. A short-circuit fault B. An open-circuit fault C. The resistance between logic modules D. The high and low logic states E4A11 (A) Which of the following test instruments can be used to indicate pulse conditions in a digital logic circuit? A. A logic probe B. An ohmmeter C. An electroscope D. A Wheatstone bridge E4A12 (B) Which of the following procedures should you follow when connecting a spectrum analyzer to a transmitter output? A. Use high quality coaxial lines B. Attenuate the transmitter output going to the spectrum analyzer C. Use a signal divider D. Match the antenna to the load E4B Frequency measurement devices (i.e., frequency counter, oscilloscope Lissajous figures, dip meter); meter performance limitations; oscilloscope performance limitations; frequency counter performance limitations E4B01 (B) What is a frequency standard? A. A frequency chosen by a net control operator for net operations B. A device used to produce a highly accurate reference frequency C. A device for accurately measuring frequency to within 1 Hz D. A device used to generate wide-band random frequencies E4B02 (B) What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of a frequency counter? A. Phase comparator slew rate, speed of the logic and time base stability B. Time base accuracy, speed of the logic and time base stability C. Time base accuracy, temperature coefficient of the logic and time base reactance D. Number of digits in the readout, external frequency reference and temperature coefficient of the logic E4B03 (C) How can the accuracy of a frequency counter be improved? A. By using slower digital logic B. By improving the accuracy of the frequency response C. By increasing the accuracy of the time base D. By using faster digital logic E4B04 (C) If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 165.2 Hz B. 14.652 kHz C. 146.52 Hz D. 1.4652 MHz E4B05 (A) If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 14.652 Hz B. 0.1 MHz C. 1.4652 Hz D. 1.4652 kHz E4B06 (D) If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 146,520,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 146.52 Hz B. 10 Hz C. 146.52 kHz D. 1465.20 Hz E4B07 (D) If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 1.0 ppm reads 432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 43.21 MHz B. 10 Hz C. 1.0 MHz D. 432.1 Hz E4B08 (A) If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 0.1 ppm reads 432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 43.21 Hz B. 0.1 MHz C. 432.1 Hz D. 0.2 MHz E4B09 (C) If a frequency counter with a specified accuracy of +/- 10 ppm reads 432,100,000 Hz, what is the most the actual frequency being measured could differ from the reading? A. 10 MHz B. 10 Hz C. 4321 Hz D. 432.1 Hz E4B10 (C) If a 100 Hz signal is fed to the horizontal input of an oscilloscope and a 150 Hz signal is fed to the vertical input, what type of Lissajous figure will be displayed on the screen? A. A looping pattern with 100 loops horizontally and 150 loops vertically B. A rectangular pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high C. A looping pattern with 3 loops horizontally and 2 loops vertically D. An oval pattern 100 mm wide and 150 mm high E4B11 (C) What is a dip-meter? A. A field-strength meter B. An SWR meter C. A device consisting of a variable frequency LC oscillator and an indicator showing the metered feedback current D. A marker generator E4B12 (D) What does a dip-meter do? A. It accurately indicates signal strength B. It measures frequency accurately C. It measures transmitter output power accurately D. It gives an indication of the resonant frequency of a nearby circuit E4B13 (B) How does a dip-meter function? A. Reflected waves at a specific frequency desensitize a detector coil B. Power coupled from an oscillator causes a decrease in metered current C. Power from a transmitter cancels feedback current D. Harmonics from an oscillator cause an increase in resonant circuit Q E4B14 (D) What two ways could a dip-meter be used in an amateur station? A. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure percentage of modulation B. To measure antenna resonance and to measure percentage of modulation C. To measure antenna resonance and to measure antenna impedance D. To measure resonant frequency of antenna traps and to measure a tuned circuit resonant frequency E4B15 (A) For best accuracy, how tightly should a dip-meter be coupled with the LC circuit being checked? A. As loosely as possible B. As tightly as possible C. First loosely, then tightly D. With a jumper wire between the meter and the circuit to be checked E4B16 (A) What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of an oscilloscope? A. Accuracy and linearity of the time base and the linearity and bandwidth of the deflection amplifiers B. Tube face voltage increments and deflection amplifier voltage C. Accuracy and linearity of the time base and tube face voltage increments D. Deflection amplifier output impedance and tube face frequency increments E4B17 (B) What happens in a dip-meter when it is too tightly coupled with a tuned circuit being checked? A. Harmonics are generated B. A less accurate reading results C. Cross modulation occurs D. Intermodulation distortion occurs E4B18 (B) What factors limit the accuracy, frequency response and stability of a D'Arsonval-type meter? A. Calibration, coil impedance and meter size B. Calibration, mechanical tolerance and coil impedance C. Coil impedance, electromagnetic voltage and movement mass D. Calibration, series resistance and electromagnet current E4B19 (D) How can the frequency response of an oscilloscope be improved? A. By using a triggered sweep and a crystal oscillator as the time base B. By using a crystal oscillator as the time base and increasing the vertical sweep rate C. By increasing the vertical sweep rate and the horizontal amplifier frequency response D. By increasing the horizontal sweep rate and the vertical amplifier frequency response E4C Receiver performance characteristics (i.e., phase noise, desensitization, capture effect, intercept point, noise floor, dynamic range {blocking and IMD}, image rejection, MDS, signal-to-noise-ratio); intermodulation and cross- modulation interference E4C01 (D) What is the effect of excessive phase noise in the local oscillator section of a receiver? A. It limits the receiver ability to receive strong signals B. It reduces the receiver sensitivity C. It decreases the receiver third-order intermodulation distortion dynamic range D. It allows strong signals on nearby frequencies to interfere with reception of weak signals E4C02 (A) What is the term for the reduction in receiver sensitivity caused by a strong signal near the received frequency? A. Desensitization B. Quieting C. Cross-modulation interference D. Squelch gain rollback E4C03 (B) Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization? A. Audio gain adjusted too low B. Strong adjacent-channel signals C. Audio bias adjusted too high D. Squelch gain adjusted too low E4C04 (A) Which of the following is one way receiver desensitization can be reduced? A. Improve the shielding between the receiver and the transmitter causing the problem B. Increase the transmitter audio gain C. Decrease the receiver squelch level D. Increase the receiver bandwidth E4C05 (C) What is the FM capture effect? A. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an FM receiver B. All signals on a frequency are demodulated by an AM receiver C. The strongest signal received is the only demodulated signal D. The weakest signal received is the only demodulated signal E4C06 (C) What is the term for the blocking of one FM phone signal by another, stronger FM phone signal? A. Desensitization B. Cross-modulation interference C. Capture effect D. Frequency discrimination E4C07 (D) What is meant by the noise floor of a receiver? A. The weakest signal that can be detected under noisy atmospheric conditions B. The amount of phase noise generated by the receiver local oscillator C. The minimum level of noise that will overload the receiver RF amplifier stage D. The weakest signal that can be detected above the receiver internal noise E4C08 (B) What is the blocking dynamic range for a receiver that has an 8-dB noise figure and an IF bandwidth of 500 Hz when the blocking level (1-dB compression point) is -20 dBm? A. -119 dBm B. 119 dB C. 146 dB D. -146 dBm E4C09 (C) What is meant by the dynamic range of a communications receiver? A. The number of kHz between the lowest and the highest frequency to which the receiver can be tuned B. The maximum possible undistorted audio output of the receiver, referenced to one milliwatt C. The ratio between the minimum discernible signal and the largest tolerable signal without causing audible distortion products D. The difference between the lowest-frequency signal and the highest-frequency signal detectable without moving the frequency control E4C10 (A) What type of problems are caused by poor dynamic range in a communications receiver? A. Cross modulation of the desired signal and desensitization from strong adjacent signals B. Oscillator instability requiring frequent retuning, and loss of ability to recover the opposite sideband, should it be transmitted C. Cross modulation of the desired signal and insufficient audio power to operate the speaker D. Oscillator instability and severe audio distortion of all but the strongest received signals E4C11 (B) If you measured the MDS of a receiver, what would you be measuring? A. The meter display sensitivity (MDS), or the responsiveness of the receiver S-meter to all signals B. The minimum discernible signal (MDS), or the weakest signal that the receiver can detect C. The minimum distorting signal (MDS), or the strongest signal the receiver can detect without overloading D. The maximum detectable spectrum (MDS), or the lowest to highest frequency range of the receiver E4C12 (B) How does intermodulation interference between two repeater transmitters usually occur? A. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected out of phase from airplanes passing overhead B. When they are in close proximity and the signals mix in one or both of their final amplifiers C. When they are in close proximity and the signals cause feedback in one or both of their final amplifiers D. When the signals from the transmitters are reflected in phase from airplanes passing overhead E4C13 (B) How can intermodulation interference between two repeater transmitters in close proximity often be reduced or eliminated? A. By using a Class C final amplifier with high driving power B. By installing a terminated circulator or ferrite isolator in the feed line to the transmitter and duplexer C. By installing a band-pass filter in the antenna feed line D. By installing a low-pass filter in the antenna feed line E4C14 (A) If a receiver tuned to 146.70 MHz receives an intermodulation-product signal whenever a nearby transmitter transmits on 146.52 MHz, what are the two most likely frequencies for the other interfering signal? A. 146.34 MHz and 146.61 MHz B. 146.88 MHz and 146.34 MHz C. 146.10 MHz and 147.30 MHz D. 73.35 MHz and 239.40 MHz E4C15 (D) If the signals of two transmitters mix together in one or both of their final amplifiers and unwanted signals at the sum and difference frequencies of the original signals are generated, what is this called? A. Amplifier desensitization B. Neutralization C. Adjacent channel interference D. Intermodulation interference E4C16 (D) What is cross-modulation interference? A. Interference between two transmitters of different modulation type B. Interference caused by audio rectification in the receiver preamp C. Harmonic distortion of the transmitted signal D. Modulation from an unwanted signal is heard in addition to the desired signal E4C17 (C) What causes intermodulation in an electronic circuit? A. Too little gain B. Lack of neutralizaton C. Nonlinear circuits or devices D. Positive feedback E4C18 (D) What two factors determine the sensitivity of a receiver? A. Dynamic range and third-order intercept B. Cost and availability C. Intermodulation distortion and dynamic range D. Bandwidth and noise figure E4C19 (A) What is the limiting condition for sensitivity in a communications receiver? A. The noise floor of the receiver B. The power-supply output ripple C. The two-tone intermodulation distortion D. The input impedance to the detector E4C20 (C) Selectivity can be achieved in the front-end circuitry of a communications receiver by using what means? A. An audio filter B. An additional RF amplifier stage C. A preselector D. An additional IF amplifier stage E4C21 (B) What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of an amateur RTTY receiver? A. 100 Hz B. 300 Hz C. 6000 Hz D. 2400 Hz E4C22 (B) What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF circuitry of a single-sideband phone receiver? A. 1 kHz B. 2.4 kHz C. 4.2 kHz D. 4.8 kHz E4C23 (D) What is an undesirable effect of using too wide a filter bandwidth in the IF section of a receiver? A. Output-offset overshoot B. Filter ringing C. Thermal-noise distortion D. Undesired signals will reach the audio stage E4C24 (A) How should the filter bandwidth of a receiver IF section compare with the bandwidth of a received signal? A. It should be slightly greater than the received-signal bandwidth B. It should be approximately half the received-signal bandwidth C. It should be approximately twice the received-signal bandwidth D. It should be approximately four times the received-signal bandwidth E4C25 (D) What degree of selectivity is desirable in the IF section of an FM phone receiver? A. 1 kHz B. 2.4 kHz C. 4.2 kHz D. 15 kHz E4C26 (B) In a receiver, if the third-order intermodulation products have a power of-70 dBm when using two test tones at -30 dBm, what is the third-order intercept point? A. -20 dBm B. -10 dBm C. 0 dBm D +10 dBm E4C27 (D) In a receiver, if the second-order intermodulation products have a power of-70 dBm when using two test tones at -30 dBm, what is the second-order intercept point? A. -20 dBm B. -10 dBm C. 0 dBm D. +10 dBm E4D Noise suppression: vehicular system noise; electronic motor noise; static; line noise E4D01 (A) What is one of the most significant problems associated with reception in HF transceivers? A. Ignition noise B. Doppler shift C. Radar interference D. Mechanical vibrations E4D02 (A) What is the proper procedure for suppressing electrical noise in a mobile transceiver? A. Follow the vehicle manufacturer's recommended procedures B. Insulate all plane sheet metal surfaces from each other C. Apply antistatic spray liberally to all non-metallic surfaces D. Install filter capacitors in series with all DC wiring E4D03 (C) Where should ferrite beads be installed to suppress ignition noise in a mobile transceiver? A. In the resistive high-voltage cable B. Between the starter solenoid and the starter motor C. In the primary and secondary ignition leads D. In the antenna lead to the transceiver E4D04 (B) How can alternator whine be minimized? A. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the longest possible path B. By connecting the radio's power leads to the battery by the shortest possible path C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's DC power lead to the vehicle's electrical system D. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead E4D05 (D) How can conducted and radiated noise caused by an automobile alternator be suppressed? A. By installing filter capacitors in series with the DC power lead and by installing a blocking capacitor in the field lead B. By connecting the radio to the battery by the longest possible path and installing a blocking capacitor in both leads C. By installing a high-pass filter in series with the radio's power lead and a low-pass filter in parallel with the field lead D. By connecting the radio's power leads directly to the battery and by installing coaxial capacitors in the alternator leads E4D06 (B) How can noise from an electric motor be suppressed? A. Install a ferrite bead on the AC line used to power the motor B. Install a brute-force, AC-line filter in series with the motor leads C. Install a bypass capacitor in series with the motor leads D. Use a ground-fault current interrupter in the circuit used to power the motor E4D07 (B) What is a major cause of atmospheric static? A. Sunspots B. Thunderstorms C. Airplanes D. Meteor showers E4D08 (C) How can it be determined if line-noise interference is being generated within your home? A. By checking the power-line voltage with a time-domain reflectometer B. By observing the AC power line waveform with an oscilloscope C. By turning off the AC power line main circuit breaker and listening on a battery-operated radio D. By observing the AC power line voltage with a spectrum analyzer E4D09 (A) What type of signal is picked up by electrical wiring near a radio transmitter? A. A common-mode signal at the frequency of the radio transmitter B. An electrical-sparking signal C. A differential-mode signal at the AC power line frequency D. Harmonics of the AC power line frequency E4D10 (B) Which of the following types of equipment would be least useful in locating power line noise? A. An AM receiver with a directional antenna B. An FM receiver with a directional antenna C. A hand-held RF sniffer D. An ultrasonic transducer, amplifier and parabolic reflector E4E Component mounting techniques (i.e., surface, dead bug (raised), circuit board; direction finding: techniques and equipment; fox hunting E4E01 (D) What circuit construction technique uses leadless components mounted between circuit board pads? A. Raised mounting B. Integrated circuit mounting C. Hybrid device mounting D. Surface mounting E4E02 (A) What is the main drawback of a wire-loop antenna for direction finding? A. It has a bidirectional pattern broadside to the loop B. It is non-rotatable C. It receives equally well in all directions D. It is practical for use only on VHF bands E4E03 (B) What pattern is desirable for a direction-finding antenna? A. One which is non-cardioid B. One with good front-to-back and front-to-side ratio C. One with good top-to-bottom and side-to-side ratio D. One with shallow nulls E4E04 (C) What is the triangulation method of direction finding? A. The geometric angle of ground waves and sky waves from the signal source are used to locate the source B. A fixed receiving station plots three beam headings from the signal source on a map C. Beam antenna headings from several receiving stations are used to plot the signal source on a map D. A fixed receiving station uses three different antennas to plot the location of the signal source E4E05 (D) Why is an RF attenuator desirable in a receiver used for direction finding? A. It narrows the bandwidth of the received signal B. It eliminates the effects of isotropic radiation C. It reduces loss of received signals caused by antenna pattern nulls D. It prevents receiver overload from extremely strong signals E4E06 (A) What is a sense antenna? A. A vertical antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid reception pattern B. A horizontal antenna added to a loop antenna to produce a cardioid reception pattern C. A vertical antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce a omnidirectional reception pattern D. A horizontal antenna added to an Adcock antenna to produce a omnidirectional reception pattern E4E07 (C) What is a loop antenna? A. A large circularly-polarized antenna B. A small coil of wire tightly wound around a toroidal ferrite core C. Several turns of wire wound in the shape of a large open coil D. Any antenna coupled to a feed line through an inductive loop of wire E4E08 (D) How can the output voltage of a loop antenna be increased? A. By reducing the permeability of the loop shield B. By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure C. By reducing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure D. By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure E4E09 (B) Why is an antenna with a cardioid pattern desirable for a direction-finding system? A. The broad-side responses of the cardioid pattern can be aimed at the desired station B. The deep null of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the direction of the desired station C. The sharp peak response of the cardioid pattern can pinpoint the direction of the desired station D. The high-radiation angle of the cardioid pattern is useful for short- distance direction finding E4E10 (C) What type of terrain can cause errors in direction finding? A. Homogeneous terrain B. Smooth grassy terrain C. Varied terrain D. Terrain with no buildings or mountains E4E11 (A) What is the amateur station activity known as fox hunting? A. Attempting to locate a hidden transmitter by using receivers and direction- finding techniques B. Attempting to locate a hidden receiver by using receivers and direction- finding techniques C. Assisting government agents with tracking transmitter collars worn by foxes D. Assembling stations using generators and portable antennas to test emergency communications skills SUBELEMENT E5 -- ELECTRICAL PRINCIPLES [9 Exam Questions -- 9 Groups] E5A Characteristics of resonant circuits: Series resonance (capacitor and inductor to resonate at a specific frequency); Parallel resonance (capacitor and inductor to resonate at a specific frequency); half-power bandwidth E5A01 (A) What can cause the voltage across reactances in series to be larger than the voltage applied to them? A. Resonance B. Capacitance C. Conductance D. Resistance E5A02 (C) What is resonance in an electrical circuit? A. The highest frequency that will pass current B. The lowest frequency that will pass current C. The frequency at which capacitive reactance equals inductive reactance D. The frequency at which power factor is at a minimum E5A03 (B) What are the conditions for resonance to occur in an electrical circuit? A. The power factor is at a minimum B. Inductive and capacitive reactances are equal C. The square root of the sum of the capacitive and inductive reactance is equal to the resonant frequency D. The square root of the product of the capacitive and inductive reactance is equal to the resonant frequency E5A04 (D) When the inductive reactance of an electrical circuit equals its capacitive reactance, what is this condition called? A. Reactive quiescence B. High Q C. Reactive equilibrium D. Resonance E5A05 (D) What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. High, as compared to the circuit resistance B. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance C. Approximately equal to inductive reactance D. Approximately equal to circuit resistance E5A06 (A) What is the magnitude of the impedance of a circuit with a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor all in parallel, at resonance? A. Approximately equal to circuit resistance B. Approximately equal to inductive reactance C. Low, as compared to the circuit resistance D. Approximately equal to capacitive reactance E5A07 (B) What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a series R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. It is at a minimum B. It is at a maximum C. It is DC D. It is zero E5A08 (B) What is the magnitude of the circulating current within the components of a parallel L-C circuit at resonance? A. It is at a minimum B. It is at a maximum C. It is DC D. It is zero E5A09 (A) What is the magnitude of the current at the input of a parallel R-L-C circuit at resonance? A. It is at a minimum B. It is at a maximum C. It is DC D. It is zero E5A10 (C) What is the relationship between the current through a resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit? A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees C. The voltage and current are in phase D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase E5A11 (C) What is the relationship between the current into (or out of) a parallel resonant circuit and the voltage across the circuit? A. The voltage leads the current by 90 degrees B. The current leads the voltage by 90 degrees C. The voltage and current are in phase D. The voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase E5A12 (A) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 1.8 MHz and a Q of 95? A. 18.9 kHz B. 1.89 kHz C. 189 Hz D. 58.7 kHz E5A13 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 7.1 MHz and a Q of 150? A. 211 kHz B. 16.5 kHz C. 47.3 kHz D. 21.1 kHz E5A14 (A) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 150? A. 95 kHz B. 10.5 kHz C. 10.5 MHz D. 17 kHz E5A15 (D) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 21.15 MHz and a Q of 95? A. 4.49 kHz B. 44.9 kHz C. 22.3 kHz D. 222.6 kHz E5A16 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 3.7 MHz and a Q of 118? A. 22.3 kHz B. 76.2 kHz C. 31.4 kHz D. 10.8 kHz E5A17 (C) What is the half-power bandwidth of a parallel resonant circuit that has a resonant frequency of 14.25 MHz and a Q of 187? A. 22.3 kHz B. 10.8 kHz C. 76.2 kHz D. 13.1 kHz E5A18 (C) What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? A. 79.6 MHz B. 1.78 MHz C. 3.56 MHz D. 7.96 MHz E5A19 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 40 microhenrys and C is 200 picofarads? A. 1.99 kHz B. 1.78 MHz C. 1.99 MHz D. 1.78 kHz E5A20 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 50 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? A. 3.18 MHz B. 3.18 kHz C. 7.12 kHz D. 7.12 MHz E5A21 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 25 microhenrys and C is 10 picofarads? A. 10.1 MHz B. 63.7 MHz C. 10.1 kHz D. 63.7 kHz E5A22 (B) What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 40 picofarads? A. 13.1 MHz B. 14.5 MHz C. 14.5 kHz D. 13.1 kHz E5A23 (D) What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 4 microhenrys and C is 20 picofarads? A. 19.9 kHz B. 17.8 kHz C. 19.9 MHz D. 17.8 MHz E5A24 (C) What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 8 microhenrys and C is 7 picofarads? A. 2.84 MHz B. 28.4 MHz C. 21.3 MHz D. 2.13 MHz E5A25 (A) What is the resonant frequency of a series RLC circuit if R is 47 ohms, L is 3 microhenrys and C is 15 picofarads? A. 23.7 MHz B. 23.7 kHz C. 35.4 kHz D. 35.4 MHz E5B Exponential charge/discharge curves (time constants): definition; time constants in RL and RC circuits E5B01(B) What is the term for the time required for the capacitor in an RC circuit to be charged to 63.2% of the supply voltage? A. An exponential rate of one B. One time constant C. One exponential period D. A time factor of one E5B02(A) What is the term for the time required for the current in an RL circuit to build up to 63.2% of the maximum value? A. One time constant B. An exponential period of one C. A time factor of one D. One exponential rate E5B03 (D) What is the term for the time it takes for a charged capacitor in an RC circuit to discharge to 36.8% of its initial value of stored charge? A. One discharge period B. An exponential discharge rate of one C. A discharge factor of one D. One time constant E5B04 (C) The capacitor in an RC circuit is charged to what percentage of the supply voltage after two time constants? A. 36.8% B. 63.2% C. 86.5% D. 95% E5B05 (D) The capacitor in an RC circuit is discharged to what percentage of the starting voltage after two time constants? A. 86.5% B. 63.2% C. 36.8% D. 13.5% E5B06 (A) What is the time constant of a circuit having two 100-microfarad capacitors and two 470-kilohm resistors all in series? A. 47 seconds B. 101.1 seconds C. 103 seconds D. 220 seconds E5B07 (D) What is the time constant of a circuit having two 220-microfarad capacitors and two 1-megohm resistors all in parallel? A. 47 seconds B. 101.1 seconds C. 103 seconds D. 220 seconds E5B08 (C) What is the time constant of a circuit having a 220-microfarad capacitor in series with a 470-kilohm resistor? A. 47 seconds B. 80 seconds C. 103 seconds D. 220 seconds E5B09 (A) How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 0.02 seconds B. 0.08 seconds C. 450 seconds D. 1350 seconds E5B10 (B) How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 0.37 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 0.02 seconds B. 0.08 seconds C. 450 seconds D. 1350 seconds E5B11 (C) How long does it take for an initial charge of 800 V DC to decrease to 294 V DC in a 450-microfarad capacitor when a 1-megohm resistor is connected across it? A. 0.02 seconds B. 0.08 seconds C. 450 seconds D. 1350 seconds E5C Impedance diagrams: Basic principles of Smith charts; impedance of RLC networks at specified frequencies; PC based impedance analysis (including Smith Charts) E5C01 (A) What type of graph can be used to calculate impedance along transmission lines? A. A Smith chart B. A logarithmic chart C. A Jones chart D. A radiation pattern chart E5C02 (B) What type of coordinate system is used in a Smith chart? A. Voltage circles and current arcs B. Resistance circles and reactance arcs C. Voltage lines and current chords D. Resistance lines and reactance chords E5C03 (C) What type of calculations can be performed using a Smith chart? A. Beam headings and radiation patterns B. Satellite azimuth and elevation bearings C. Impedance and SWR values in transmission lines D. Circuit gain calculations E5C04 (C) What are the two families of circles that make up a Smith chart? A. Resistance and voltage B. Reactance and voltage C. Resistance and reactance D. Voltage and impedance E5C05 (A) What type of chart is shown in Figure E5-1? A. Smith chart B. Free-space radiation directivity chart C. Vertical-space radiation pattern chart D. Horizontal-space radiation pattern chart E5C06 (B) On the Smith chart shown in Figure E5-1, what is the name for the large outer circle bounding the coordinate portion of the chart? A. Prime axis B. Reactance axis C. Impedance axis D. Polar axis E5C07 (D) On the Smith chart shown in Figure E5-1, what is the only straight line shown? A. The reactance axis B. The current axis C. The voltage axis D. The resistance axis E5C08 (C) What is the process of normalizing with regard to a Smith chart? A. Reassigning resistance values with regard to the reactance axis B. Reassigning reactance values with regard to the resistance axis C. Reassigning impedance values with regard to the prime center D. Reassigning prime center with regard to the reactance axis E5C09 (A) What is the third family of circles, which are added to a Smith chart during the process of solving problems? A. Standing-wave ratio circles B. Antenna-length circles C. Coaxial-length circles D. Radiation-pattern circles E5C10 (A) In rectangular coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 10-microhenry inductor in series with a 40-ohm resistor at 500 MHz? A. 40 + j31,400 B. 40 - j31,400 C. 31,400 + j40 D. 31,400 - j40 E5C11 (C) In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a network comprised of a 100- picofarad capacitor in parallel with a 4,000-ohm resistor at 500 kHz? A. 2490 ohms, /__51.5_degrees__ B. 4000 ohms, /__38.5_degrees__ C. 2490 ohms, /__-51.5_degrees__ D. 5112 ohms, /__-38.5_degrees__ E5C12 (D) Which point on Figure E5-2 best represents the impedance of a series circuit consisting of a 300-ohm resistor, a 0.64-microhenry inductor and a 85-picofarad capacitor at 24.900 MHz? A. Point 1 B. Point 3 C. Point 5 D. Point 8 E5C13 (D) What are the curved lines on a Smith chart? A. Portions of current circles B. Portions of voltage circles C. Portions of resistance circles D. Portions of reactance circles E5C14 (B) How are the wavelength scales on a Smith chart calibrated? A. In portions of transmission line electrical frequency B. In portions of transmission line electrical wavelength C. In portions of antenna electrical wavelength D. In portions of antenna electrical frequency E5D Phase angle between voltage and current; impedances and phase angles of series and parallel circuits; E5D01 (A) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 25 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 100 ohms? A. 36.9 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 53.1 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C. 36.9 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 53.1 degrees with the voltage leading the current E5D02 (C) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 500 ohms, R is 1 kilohm, and XL is 250 ohms? A. 68.2 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 14.0 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 14.0 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 68.2 degrees with the voltage lagging the current E5D03 (D) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 25 ohms? A. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current D. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current E5D04 (A) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 100 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms? A. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current B. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current C. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current D. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current E5D05 (D) What is the phase angle between the voltage across and the current through a series R-L-C circuit if XC is 50 ohms, R is 100 ohms, and XL is 75 ohms? A. 76 degrees with the voltage leading the current B. 76 degrees with the voltage lagging the current C. 14 degrees with the voltage lagging the current D. 14 degrees with the voltage leading the current E5D06 (D) What is the relationship between the current through and the voltage across a capacitor? A. Voltage and current are in phase B. Voltage and current are 180 degrees out of phase C. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees D. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees E5D07 (A) What is the relationship between the current through an inductor and the voltage across an inductor? A. Voltage leads current by 90 degrees B. Current leads voltage by 90 degrees C. Voltage and curren
